PEBC Indian Pharmacy Graduates Guide Registered CANADIAN PHARMACIST & Pharma Assistant

Pharmacy is a key sector of the economy in Canada. There are many different types of pharmacies, such as independent and community pharmacy, drug stores, hospital pharmacies, laboratories and clinics. The scope of pharmacy education has been expanding in different areas. In the past few years there has been a rise in the number of pharmacist schools and more universities offering Pharmacy degrees. This growth is due to the increasing demand for pharmacists and their knowledge about drugs, patient care and pharmaceutical products. .Scoring and Qualifications of Pharmacy Degrees There are different types of degrees available in pharmacy, some more rigorous than others. The degree requirements can vary depending on the university offering the program and where it is offered. In addition to basic undergraduate courses, a number of pharmaceutical related programs are available at postgraduate level. These programs include pharmacotherapeutics, Pharmacology, Medicinal Chemistry.

Canadian PEBC Certification Process for International Students

The process of becoming a licensed pharmacist in Canada involves completing a series of Exams with few steps. There are 3 steps to achieving PEBC pharmacist certification:


DOCUMENT EVALUATION – You must pass this evaluation of your educational and professional credentials to be eligible to take the Pharmacist Evaluating Examination.


THE PHARMACIST EVALUATING EXAMINATION – You must pass this examination to be eligible for the Pharmacist Qualifying Examination – Parts I (MCQ) and II (OSCE).


THE PHARMACIST QUALIFYING EXAMINATION, PART I (MCQ) and PART II (OSCE) – Your final step to qualifying for certification with PEBC. When you have passed both Parts of the examination you will be certified and registered with PEBC.

Documents Required for Canada Pharmacist Exam

The process of becoming a licensed pharmacist in Canada involves PEBC certification. For these exams is the Pharmacy Examining Board of Canada (PEBC) Qualifying Examination One need to have a Pharmacy graduate Degree. PEBC will evaluate your degree convocation marks lists of all the years of your academics documents to ensure you have a degree in Pharmacy that is acceptable.

  • PEBC Document Evaluation application.

You must pass document evaluation before you qualify to apply for the Evaluating Examination.


  • Language Proficiency Requirements
    Language Proficiency Tests are not required by the PEBC. However, Provincial Regulatory Authorities do require these tests.

PEBC recommends you contact the regulatory authority for the province in which you are seeking licensure to receive full information regarding language fluency requirements.


Pharmacist Examination is a very important and time-consuming task. It involves gathering information from a large number of sources, analyzing it and then presenting the results in a clear and accurate way.
The pharmacist is the person who has to answer questions about medicines and their properties. This role is very important as it involves a lot of knowledge and experience.

This section will be on question Multiple Answer and Test Questions.



The PEBC Qualifying Examination for pharmacists has consisted of two components: Part I is the multiple-choice question examination and Part II is a performance assessment. Part II is known as an Objective Structured Clinical Examination (OSCE). It is designed to assess communications/interpersonal skills, the application of knowledge to simulations of commonly encountered patient scenarios and other aspects of professional competence that do not lend well to written examinations. The competencies to be assessed through both the written and practice-based exams are those adopted (or adapted) by all member provinces of the National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities (NAPRA).

PEBC implemented the PEBC Qualifying Examination for pharmacy technicians, also consisting of a multiple-choice examination (Part I) and performance-based examination (Part II), the Objective Structured Performance Examination (OSPE). The examination will be implemented in provinces as they move forward with regulation of pharmacy technicians. Once licensed in their own province, pharmacy technicians will be integrated into all PEBC examination administration and assessment processes.


Pharmacy is a challenging field and is not as lucrative as other professions. This article will help students and professionals understand the costs associated with studying pharmacy in Canada


Fees -Cost for whole process of Registered Pharmacists

Document Evaluation & Examination
Document Evaluation $685 Rupees 41,689.

US Document Evaluation $250 Rupees 1526

Evaluating Examination (2023 fee) $890 Rupees 54,314

Qualifying Examination – Part I (MCQ) $825 Rupees 50,347

Qualifying Examination – Part II (OSCE) $1,855 Rupees 1,13,205

Only if you have money on account with PEBC
Examination Re-scoring (Hand scoring)
Evaluating Examination

Qualifying Examination – Part I (MCQ)

Qualifying Examination – Part II (OSCE)

Examination Rescheduling
Evaluating Examination $43 +HST
Qualifying Examination – Part I (MCQ) $43 +HST
Paid directly to Prometric when rescheduling, if applicable

Certificate Replacement $100

Sending Licensing Statement/Good Standing Certificate to Provincial Regulatory Authority $100

ECA Report Request $100


Fees -Cost for whole process of Registered Pharmacy Technicians

Qualifying Examination – Part I (MCQ) $560 34,175.36 Indian Rupee

Qualifying Examination – Part II (OSPE) $1,170 71,402.09 Indian Rupee

Only if you have money on account with PEBC
Examination Re-scoring
Qualifying Examination – Part I (MCQ) $100

Qualifying Examination – Part II (OSPE) $200

Examination Rescheduling
Qualifying Examination – Part I (MCQ) $43 +HST
Paid directly to Prometric when rescheduling, if applicable

International Evaluation $1,500

Certificate Replacement

Study Tips to become a Pharmacist by clearing your Evaluating Examination PEBC:

What is EE? It is nothing but abbreviation for evaluating examination. It is the basic examination in which every foreign graduates who haven’t completed their degree from Canada. Candidate have to appear in this examination as the name indicates it’s. Evaluating means it will evaluate your degree. This examination will evaluate your degree or your knowledge so that you can appear in the upcoming qualifying examination that is MCQ as well as Osci.

  • work hard
  • study for longer durations
  • make own timetable
  • routine your 24 hours
  • Keep Syllabus copy in front of study table
  • List out topics that are important and in whichever topics you have to study in detail
  • Take  one course and follow it strictly
  • Follow CTC CTMA books for therapeutics
  • Group study in the starting days of your preparation
  • Smart work
  • Daily schedule Consistent Focus



PEBC – Canada Registered Pharmacist EXAM Question Paper with Answers PDF

PEBC Exam paper

Pharmacist Evaluating Examination Sample Questions are given here with answers. The questions are designed to test the knowledge of pharmacists and their ability to apply it in their daily practice. Generally, the exam is divided into two parts, namely a written part and a practical part. The written part consists of multiple choice questions which can be answered using different options provided by the question. On the other hand, the practical OSCE is Part 2 of the examination. The questions here provided are just for practice and based on previous paper or another similar one from the sample paper.




  • Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:
  1. pyrimidine
  2. purine
  3. pyrazine
  4. pteridine
  5. pyridine


  • Which of the following releases enkephalins?
  1. Pineal gland
  2. Thyroid gland
  3. Periaqueductal grey matter
  4. Reticular activating system
  5. Pituitary gland


  • β-Carotene is the precursor of:
  1. retinoic


  • Which of the following statements regarding transcription is correct?
  1. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA
  2. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is DNA
  3. During transcription, the genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of tRNA is translated into a protein
  4. The process of transcription includes the splicing of
  5. Following initiation, the next stage of transcription is


  • Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular bacteria, making it resistant to cell wall-active antibiotics?
  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Legionella pneumophila
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  5. Chlamydophila pneumoniae


  • Which of the following blood vessels transports nutrient rich blood from the intestines to the liver?
  1. Hepatic artery
  2. Hepatic portal vein
  3. Great saphenous vein
  4. Inferior vena cava
  5. Superior vena cava


  • The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:
  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 20
  5. 25


  • In adults, community-acquired pneumonia caused by which of the following organisms is associated with the highest mortality rate?
  1. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
  2. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
  4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  5. Pneumocystis jirovecii


  • Which of the following is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?
  1. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
  2. Dopamine
  3. Glutamate
  4. Acetylcholine
  5. Glycine


  • Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from viral RNA?
  1. Reverse transcriptase
  2. DNA polymerase
  3. RNA polymerase
  4. Endonuclease
  5. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase


  • Of the essential transition metal ions found in the human body, the one present at highest overall concentration is:



  • The optic disc is also called the:
  1. blind
  2. macula


  • If systemic blood pressure decreases, which of the following would occur to help return blood pressure to normal?
  1. Increased urine production
  2. Increased acetylcholine release
  3. Increased aldosterone secretion
  4. Increased diameter of systemic arterioles
  5. Increased erythropoietin production


  • Which of the following muscle groups are innervated by the sciatic nerve?
  1. Calf muscles
  2. Deep back muscles
  3. Shoulder muscles
  4. Quadriceps femoris muscles
  5. Abdominal muscles


  • Which of the following does NOT empty its contents into the gastrointestinal tract?
  1. Liver
  2. Pancreas
  3. Spleen
  4. Submandibular gland
  5. Appendix


  • Achieving a high level of herd immunity is an important public health strategy because it:
  1. reduces immunization costs in
  2. enhances individual immunologic
  3. facilitates animal
  4. protects people who cannot be
  5. requires fewer booster




  • All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct,


  1. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile
  2. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic
  3. the solute usually forms an amorphous
  4. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug
  5. water is removed from the frozen mixture by


  • Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it:
  1. selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular
  2. does not induce peripheral
  3. decreases the force of myocardial
  4. delays the atrioventricular (AV) conduction
  5. prolongs the QT interval on the


  • Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the drug:
  1. is
  2. is protein
  3. is acidic but not protein
  4. has a small volume of
  5. has a large volume of


  • Drug A is administered by continuous IV infusion at a rate of 2 mg/min. It has an average half-life of
    • h and a volume of distribution of 150 L in an average 70 kg patient. Using this information, what is the steady-state concentration of Drug A in plasma?
  1. 5 mg/L
  2. 7 mg/L
  3. 1 mg/L
  4. 4 mg/L
  5. 7 mg/L



Valproic acid is metabolized by aliphatic hydroxylation to the above two structures. The relationship between the two metabolites illustrates the concept of:

  1. conformational
  2. structural
  3. geometric
  4. optical



  • Which of the following medications induces an isoform of cytochrome P450?
  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Clarithromycin
  3. Amiodarone
  4. Metronidazole
  5. Bosentan


  • Diazepam Injection U.S.P Diazepam 5 mg/ml

Ethanol 10%

Propylene glycol 40%

Benzyl alcohol 1.5%

Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, propylene glycol functions as a(n):


  • Which of the following directly influences the in vitro physical stability of an oil-in-water emulsion in which the drug is incorporated in the dispersed phase?
  1. Amount of preservative added
  2. Molecular weight of the drug
  3. Solubility of the emulsifier in water
  4. Particle size of the internal phase
  5. Type of suspending agent used


  • Abatacept acts by:
  1. stimulating adenosine
  2. binding to MHC Class II on B
  3. inhibiting B cell
  4. activating T cell
  5. binding CD80/86 on antigen-presenting


  • With respect to bioequivalence, the parameter “Cmax” is:
  1. affected by the extent of absorption
  2. affected by the rate of absorption
  3. affected by neither rate nor extent of
  4. affected by both rate and extent of
  5. the only significant



The above structures are related to one another as:

  1. positional (structural)


  • Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5, and 4 h (hours). The mean half-life is:
  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 5.4 h.
  4. 5.8 h.
  5. 6 h.


  • Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following, EXCEPT:
  1. to mask the taste of the
  2. to mask the odor of the
  3. to improve the appearance of the
  4. to increase the drug’s release
  5. to protect the drug from stomach


  • Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?
  1. Deliquescence
  2. Efflorescence
  3. Hygroscopicity
  4. Polymorphism
  5. Condensation



  • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation?
  1. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the
  2. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more
  3. Binding agents may be added dry or in
  4. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to
  5. Glidants promote the flow of materials during


  • Factors that determine bioequivalence of two brands of a drug include the:
  1. taste of the
  2. physical appearance of the
  3. pharmacokinetic parameters of the
  4. cost of the
  5. package size of the



  • The total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min. This is most likely explained by the fact that the drug:
  1. is extensively
  2. accumulates in patients with moderate renal failure
  3. undergoes significant entero-hepatic
  4. is not bound to plasma
  5. is concentrated in adipose


  • The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E


  • Imatinib is an anticancer agent used in the treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia that acts by inhibiting the activity of:
  1. tyrosine kinase of Bcr-Abl.
  2. tyrosine kinase of HER-2.
  3. tyrosine kinase of
  4. histone
  5. serine/threonine kinase


  • Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na+-H+ exchange system of the renal tubule?
  1. Furosemide
  2. Hydrochlorothiazide
  3. Spironolactone
  4. Acetazolamide
  5. Amiloride


  • Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms, EXCEPT:
  1. dry
  2. flushed
  3. delirium and restlessness.


  • The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms?
  1. Combining with acetylcholine
  2. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase
  3. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
  4. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor
  5. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending


  • Which of the following is a selective adrenergic beta1-blocker with endothelium-dependent vasodilating properties?
  1. Nebivolol
  2. Metoprolol
  3. Acebutolol
  4. Nadolol
  5. Carvedilol


  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of monoclonal antibody drug therapies?
  1. Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of
  2. T cells are stimulated and will initiate a host rejection
  3. Adalimumab is a murine-derived immunoglobulin monoclonal antibody
  4. Use of chimeric monoclonal antibodies is associated with increased
  5. Use of Fc fragments avoids raising an immune response against the FAB


  • In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is included as:
  1. an
  2. a
  3. a
  4. a
  5. an


  • The carbonic anhydrase inhibitor dorzolamide is structurally classified as a:


  • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding virus vectors used in the production of biotechnology drugs?
  1. Viruses can be introduced by
  2. Viruses can be generated by an infected production cell
  3. The most frequent source of virus introduction is the growth
  4. Viruses can be inactivated by physical or chemical treatment of the
  5. There is a trend toward using better-defined growth media in which serum levels are significantly reduced.


  • Which of the following excipients is NOT commonly found in biotechnology formulations?
  1. Albumin
  2. Lysine
  3. Tween 20
  4. Saline
  5. Phosphate


  • An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is:


  • Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to:
  1. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the
  2. post-antimicrobial
  3. enhanced tissue
  4. reduced renal
  5. higher peak-trough


  • How much NaCl is required to make 100 mL of isotonic 5% phenylephrine HCl solution? (NaCl equivalent of phenylephrine HCl is 0.32)
  1. 100 mg
  2. 300 mg
  3. 500 mg
  4. 740 mg
  5. 900 mg


  • Which of the following nonparenteral routes of administration yields the best bioavailability of biotechnology protein drugs?
  1. Oral
  2. Rectal
  3. Ocular
  4. Pulmonary
  5. Transdermal


  • Theoretically, the shelf life of a pharmaceutical tablet preparation is best measured by a change in which of the following?
  1. Permeability of the drug
  2. Dissolution of the drug
  3. Strength of the drug
  4. Solubility of the drug
  5. Partitioning of the drug


  • A drug that is considered to be low clearance and is metabolized entirely by the liver is sensitive to changes in:
  1. drug binding to plasma
  2. bile
  3. hepatic blood
  4. renal blood
  5. p-glycoprotein transport


  • Which of the following statements is correct about transdermal drug administration?
  1. Most drugs can permeate the skin and enter the systemic
  2. Transdermal absorption achieves a fast onset of drug
  3. The skin is tolerant to most drugs and chemicals in transdermal delivery
  4. Transdermal administration produces minimal variations in drug
  5. Hair follicles are a determinant in limiting transdermal drug


  • Two drugs (Drug A and Drug B) were administered at a dose of 10 mg/kg to two subjects. Drug A was administered intravenously and Drug B was administered orally. Plasma samples were collected

and concentrations of both drugs were measured. A semilog plot of concentration vs. time is shown below. The concentration of Drug A is represented by the solid line and Drug B by the dashed line.





Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. The absorption rate constants for Drug A and Drug B can be estimated from the
  2. Drug B has a lower clearance than Drug
  3. Drug A has a larger distribution volume than Drug
  4. Drug B has a higher plasma protein binding than Drug
  5. The volume of distribution for Drug A can be estimated from the


  • Which of the following drugs is an antagonist at the central presynaptic alpha2-adrenergic receptors?
  1. Clonidine
  2. Terazosin
  3. Mirtazapine
  4. Risperidone
  5. Venlafaxine


  • A monoclonal antibody was tested in patients using the following dose ranges and resulted in the following t1/2 values:

Dose                  Half-life

0.2 mg/kg           2 days

  • mg/kg 8 days
  • mg/kg 18 days
  • mg/kg 18 days

5 mg/kg            18 days

What is the reason for the dose-dependent t1/2? The biologic drug:

  1. eliminates primarily by the lymphatic system at lower
  2. eliminates primarily by the liver resulting in nonlinear
  3. eliminates by
  4. distributes rapidly to peripheral organs at lower
  5. exhibits target-mediated drug


  • Pravastatin inhibits:
  1. PCSK9
  2. lipoprotein
  3. vascular oxidative
  4. scavenger receptor
  5. HDL


  • In a manufacturing setting, which of the following methods is the most appropriate to use for sterilization of plastic (PVC) tubing?
  1. Dry heat
  2. Steam autoclave
  3. Ionizing radiation
  4. Ethylene oxide gas
  5. Filtration


  • What is the first process used when evaluating the integrity of a recombinant protein after each purification step?
  1. ELISA
  2. Quantitative PCR
  3. Peptide mapping
  4. SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
  5. Amino acid sequencing


  • Which of the following types of neurotransmitter receptors is most responsible for the

decreased risk of extrapyramidal side effects observed with some second generation antipsychotics relative to first generation antipsychotics?

  1. Serotonergic
  2. Histaminergic
  3. Muscarinic
  4. Noradrenergic
  5. Alpha-adrenergic


  • In tablets made from wet granulation processing, which of the following substances is commonly included as a lubricant?
  1. Lactose
  2. Potato starch
  3. Croscarmellose
  4. Dicalcium phosphate
  5. Sodium lauryl sulfate


  • Permeation enhancers increase drug absorption from buccal dosage forms by which of the following mechanisms?
  1. Decreasing drug solubility
  2. Extracting oral mucosal lipids
  3. Disrupting saliva secretion
  4. Increasing drug particle size
  5. Prolonging oral retention


  • Disintegration of a compressed tablet is primarily dependent upon which of the following properties of the tablet?
  1. Size
  2. Shape
  3. Hardness
  4. Coating
  5. Stability


PHARMACY PRACTICE – Clinical Sciences


  • At typical dosing, which of the following antidepressant medications is associated with the highest incidence of nausea?
  1. Sertraline
  2. Fluoxetine
  3. Duloxetine
  4. Escitalopram
  5. Desvenlafaxine


  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of fluoroquinolones?
  1. Fluoroquinolones can cause blood glucose alterations in elderly patients who take oral antihyperglycemic
  2. Healthy women with acute uncomplicated cystitis should be treated for a minimum of 7 days with a fluoroquinolone.
  3. Therapeutic drug monitoring is recommended with prolonged fluoroquinolone therapy, to avoid ototoxicity.
  4. In the case of treatment failure, another fluoroquinolone should be tried before switching to a different antibiotic
  5. All fluoroquinolones have equal efficacy when used to treat patients with community-acquired pneumonia.



SM is a 34 year old female who, while vacationing in Mexico, began prophylactic treatment for travellers’ diarrhea. Shortly thereafter she complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears, black stools and a black tongue. SM’s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides.


  • Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM’s complaints?
  1. Bismuth subsalicylate
  2. Cotrimoxazole (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)
  3. Doxycycline
  4. Amoxicillin
  5. Loperamide


  • An organism commonly implicated in the cause of travellers’ diarrhea is:
  1. Bacteroides fragilis.
  2. Escherichia coli.
  3. Clostridium difficile.
  4. Listeria monocytogenes.
  5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.





  • Which of the following medications requires monitoring for the adverse effect of dyslipidemia?
  1. Ciprofloxacin
  2. Allopurinol
  3. Isotretinoin
  4. Ramipril
  5. Raloxifene


  • The mother of a 6 year old child presents to the pharmacist with a written prescription for amoxicillin that was ordered by the physician three days earlier. She states that her child was diagnosed wit otitis media and the symptoms have remained the same over the past three Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacist response?
  1. Fill the prescription as written
  2. Refuse to fill the prescription as the antibiotic order is no longer current
  3. Indicate a need to contact the prescriber before filling the prescription at this time
  4. Fill the prescription for a quantity that is the ordered amount less three days’ supply
  5. Explain that, at this late date, antibiotic therapy will likely be ineffective for the child


  • RF is an 80 year old female who developed CDAD (Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea) after recent treatment of a urinary tract infection with ciprofloxacin. She is admitted to hospital with profound diarrhea (eight watery bowel movements per day) and fever (39.5º C). Based on her symptoms, which of the following is the most appropriate therapy choice for her?
  1. Oral metronidazole
  2. Intravenous metronidazole
  3. Oral cholestyramine
  4. Oral vancomycin
  5. Intravenous vancomycin


  • CC, a 72 year old female, complains to the pharmacist that her stomach has been bothering her recently. Current medications include: levothyroxine 100 mcg po daily (x 30 years), acetaminophen 500 mg po qid (x 5 months), atorvastatin 40 mg po at bedtime (x 4 years), ibuprofen 400 mg po tid prn joint pain (x 2 months), and zopiclone 3.75 mg po at bedtime prn (x 3 months). Based on CC’s current symptoms, which of the following drug therapy problems best describes CC’s current situation?
  1. Too high a dosage of atorvastatin
  2. Too high a dosage of zopiclone
  3. Need for cytoprotection with ibuprofen
  4. Drug interaction between atorvastatin and zopiclone
  5. Too low a dosage of levothyroxine


  • A 27 year old patient presents to a community pharmacy for the first time and tells the pharmacist that he experienced an allergy to a penicillin product as a child. His symptoms included hives, wheezing and facial swelling, which resulted in hospitalized Which of the following is the most important reason for a community pharmacist to document this type of information in a patient’s medication profile record?
  1. To provide drug allergy information to the patient’s insurance
  2. To encourage the patient to fill future prescriptions at this
  3. To advertise relevant pharmacy products or services to appropriate
  4. To enhance continuity of patient care regardless of the
  5. To provide a record of cognitive services for insurance





TK is a 63 year old male with chronic kidney disease (CrCl = 29 mL/min/1.73m2) and gout. He experienced his last gout attack about two months ago. Today his toe is extremely painful, hot, red, and swollen. At a walk-in clinic, he receives a prescription for naproxen 500 mg po bid for five days. TK’ s other current medication is pravastatin 20 mg po at bedtime.


  • What drug therapy problem should the pharmacist identify for TK?
  1. Naproxen is inferior to indomethacin for the treatment of acute
  2. The duration of naproxen treatment is too
  3. Naproxen should be avoided in patients taking
  4. Naproxen should be avoided in patients with renal
  5. The frequency of naproxen dosing is too


  • Following successful resolution of the acute episode, TK’s physician decides that he should initiate allopurinol. TK should be advised to:
  1. limit fluid
  2. take medication on an empty
  3. use precautions to avoid
  4. report any skin rash or itching to the
  5. avoid dairy products or multivitamins within 2 hours of



  • All of the following have been implicated in causing toxic nephropathy, EXCEPT:


  • In the treatment of a patient who has a solid tumour, which of the following side effects typically occurs one to two weeks after chemotherapy?
  1. Neuropathy
  2. Cardiotoxicity
  3. Neutropenia
  4. Emesis
  5. Nephrotoxicity


  • Lactose intolerance is classified as a(n):
  1. enzyme
  2. mineral
  3. transporter
  4. vitamin


  • A community pharmacist conducts a medication review for a 67 year old patient who has a 20-year history of COPD, diabetes and The patient’s current medications include the following:

Aclidinium 400 mcg inhaler, one inhalation bid

Budesonide 200 mcg/formoterol 6 mcg Turbuhaler®, 2 inhalations bid Salbutamol 100 mcg MDI, 2 inhalations qid

Sitagliptin100 mg, one tablet po daily Metformin 500 mg, one tablet po tid

Venlafaxine ER 150 mg, one capsule po at bedtime

Which of the following drug therapy problems should be identified for this patient?

  1. Taking too high a dosage of aclidinium
  2. Taking too high a dosage of metformin
  3. Inappropriate dosing time for venlafaxine
  4. Drug interaction between sitagliptin and metformin
  5. Duplication of therapy with salbutamol and formoterol


  • Which of the following is characterized as an autoimmune disorder?
  1. Alzheimer disease
  2. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  3. Osteoarthritis
  4. Parkinson disease
  5. Paget disease


  • A pregnant female presents with a prescription for an antibiotic for treatment of a urinary tract infection. She tells the pharmacist that she doesn’t know why the doctor gave her the medication, because she isn’t experiencing any symptoms. Her presentation is consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
  1. Cystitis
  2. Septicemia
  3. Urinary retention
  4. Pyelonephritis
  5. Asymptomatic bacteriuria


  • A community pharmacist would like to begin a diabetic education program for local patients newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Beneficial information for this group includes all of the following EXCEPT:
  1. strategies to minimize cardiac risk
  2. the facts on diabetes and its
  3. the role of blood glucose
  4. appropriate dietary
  5. the technique for the mixing of


  • Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for moderate to severe atopic dermatitis in an 8 year old child?
  1. Urea 20% cream
  2. Tacrolimus 0.03% cream
  3. Pimecrolimus 1% cream
  4. Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% ointment
  5. Clobetasone propionate 0.05% cream


  • Which of the following is a normal host defence that helps to prevent pneumonia?
  1. Low sputum pH
  2. Aspiration
  3. Thick, tenacious sputum
  4. Neutropenia
  5. Epiglottal closure


  • Tadalafil is preferred over sildenafil in which of the following patient situations?
  1. After using sublingual nitroglycerin
  2. After eating a high-fat meal
  3. If receiving hemodialysis
  4. If taking testosterone supplementation
  5. For males over the age of 60 years


  • Which of the following vitamins is found at reduced levels in cigarette smokers compared to nonsmokers?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D
  5. Vitamin K


  • Which of the following is a reasonable goal of therapy for a patient with active inflammatory bowel disease?
  1. Prevent infection
  2. Prevent mortality
  3. Maintain quality of life
  4. Achieve endoscopic remission
  5. Limit the number of colectomies


  • BC is a 25 year old female with depression who has had an adequate trial with each of sertraline and escitalopram. She has tolerated the medications but has only achieved a partial response to escitalopram 20 mg po once Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for BC?
  1. Increase escitalopram to 40 mg po once daily
  2. Add diazepam 5 mg po once daily to escitalopram
  3. Add aripiprazole 2 mg po once daily to escitalopram
  4. Stop escitalopram and start fluoxetine 20 mg po once daily
  5. Stop escitalopram and start venlafaxine XR 150 mg po once daily


PHARMACY PRACTICE – Professional Practice Skills Questions


  • Which of the following is NOT a benefit of performing medication reconciliation activities in a hospital setting?
  1. Reduction of medication errors
  2. Reduction of inventory pilferage
  3. Reduction of preventable adverse effects
  4. Assessment of patient adherence to therapy
  5. Enhanced accuracy of patient allergy information


  • The web site of which of the following would be most appropriate to consult in order to determine whether there are any safety alerts associated with a prescription drug product?
  1. Canadian Agency for Drugs and Technologies in Health
  2. Health Canada
  3. Institute for Safe Medication Practices
  4. Canadian Patient Safety Institute
  5. Canadian Institute for Health Information


  • In dispensing, the Latin abbreviation for “before meals” is:


  • In dispensing, the English meaning for the Latin phrase “ex aqua” is:
  1. with or in
  2. extracellular
  3. exact
  4. soluble in
  5. out of


  • Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:
  1. 12.5% w/w.
  2. 16.7% w/w.
  3. 20% w/w.
  4. 23.8% w/w.
  5. 25% w/w.


  • Appropriate quality control procedures to ensure product and patient safety in the pharmacy do NOT include which of the following?
  1. Adhering to guidelines for cold chain management
  2. Maintaining a regular cleaning schedule for dispensary surfaces
  3. Cleaning counting trays and automated counting machines regularly
  4. Using TALLman lettering on all prescription labels
  5. Regulating the pharmacy’s indoor climate where medications are stored


  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the MedlinePlus web site for drug information? The service:
  1. provides a compilation of clinical practice guidelines for health care
  2. provides systematic reviews that are based solely on evidence from primary
  3. has an emphasis on providing patient/consumer information on a wide variety of health
  4. is limited by its availability only through paid subscription by health care
  5. is limited by a lag to publication and updating of patient therapy-related


  • The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following?
  1. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine may be
  2. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be
  3. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the second
  4. The maximum dosage in any 24-hour period is six
  5. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24


  • Which of the following medications requires an auxiliary label regarding avoiding the consumption of grapefruit or grapefruit juice?
  1. Felodipine
  2. Amlodipine
  3. Levetiracetam
  4. Divalproex
  5. Gabapentin


  • The recommended pediatric dosage for azithromycin therapy is 12 mg/kg po once daily on Days 1 through 5. For a child weighing 8.3 kg, calculate the total volume needed for the total course of treatment, if a product supplying 200 mg/5 mL is supplied for this
  1. 5 mL
  2. 15 mL
  3. 25 mL
  4. 5 mL
  5. 50 mL


  • A pharmacist is making a presentation on medication adherence to a group of clients. Which of the following would be the most appropriate indicator of the effectiveness of the presentation for these clients?
  1. Increase in fill quantity for each prescription refill
  2. Reduced number of prescriptions filled per month
  3. Increase in number of nonprescription medications used
  4. Reduced number of prescription refill dates per month
  5. Prescription refill dates closer to expected fill intervals


  • Rx Timolol 0.25 % drops Mitte : 15 mL

Sig: gtt. i o.d. bid

On the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read:

  1. apply one drop into both eyes twice
  2. instil one drop into the left eye twice
  3. instil one drop into the right eye twice
  4. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice
  5. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice



  • According to ISMP guidelines, which of the following medication orders contains a dangerous abbreviation or dosing designation?
  1. Insulin NPH 10 units subcut at bedtime
  2. Oxycodone CR 40 mg po q12h
  3. Gliclazide 80 mg po bid
  4. MTX 7.5 mg po weekly
  5. Levothyroxine 88 mcg po daily


  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding Tylenol Elixir With Codeine® (each 5 ml contains acetaminophen 160 mg and codeine 8 mg)?
  1. It requires a written order from an authorized
  2. It is an example of a legally exempted codeine
  3. Sale for self-medication use must involve a
  4. It is regulated under the Benzodiazepines and Other Targeted Substances
  5. Authorized prescribers include


  • A physician wants to switch a terminally-ill patient from slow release morphine sulfate tablets, 15 mg tablets. If a morphine sulfate solution containing 5 mg per mL is prescribed q4h, what volume should be dispensed for a 20 day supply to provide the same pain relief as the tablet regimen?
  1. 20 mL
  2. 60 mL
  3. 80 mL
  4. 100 mL
  5. 120 mL


  • A biological safety cabinet is required when preparing a parenteral formulation of:
  1. magnesium


  • Which of the following drug orders is incomplete and requires follow-up with the prescriber?
  1. Zithromax Z-Pak® (azithromycin 250 mg), 2 tabs po on day 1 and 1 tab po on days 2-5.
  2. Flonase® (fluticasone) 100 mcg spray, 1 or 2 sprays in each nostril bid x 1 bottle
  3. Actonel® (risedronate), 35 mg po once weekly x 12 tabs
  4. Cozaar® (losartan), 50 mg po bid x 1 month
  5. Zocor® (simvastatin), 1 tab po hs for 3 months


  • JN, a 17 year old male with a highly resistant form of testicular cancer, is in hospital for treatment. He is an intelligent, articulate young His parents are insisting that the physician treat him with the latest experimental therapy, but JN does not want to undergo the treatment. If the physician goes ahead and gives the experimental therapy what ethical principle will have been violated the most?
  1. Confidentiality
  2. Nonmaleficence
  3. Justice
  4. Veracity
  5. Autonomy



  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypothesis testing?
  1. A type I error frequently occurs when sample sizes are
  2. A type II error is more serious than a type I
  3. Small p-values suggest that the null hypothesis is likely to be
  4. The larger the p-value, the more likely the null hypothesis is
  5. P-value is the probability of wrongly rejecting the null hypothesis if it is in fact



  • An adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over two years demonstrated that the primary outcome (a serious cardiovascular event) occurred in 15% of the patients who received the new drug, whereas the primary outcome occurred in 25% of the patients who received a placebo. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug is:
  1. 10%.
  2. 15%.
  3. 25%.
  4. 40%.
  5. 50%.


  • In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over three years, a specific serious side effect (i.e., reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for three years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:
  1. 15.
  2. 20.
  3. 150.
  4. 200.
  5. 2000.


  • In a study comparing two drug treatment regimens, a type II error occurs when:
  1. the statistical conclusion is that there is a difference between the two treatment regimens when a difference does not actually
  2. the statistical conclusion is that there is no difference between the two treatment regimens when a difference actually does
  3. the p level is > 05.
  4. the drug treatments studied are not appropriate comparators for the
  5. the exclusion criteria are too


  • A pharmacist has received information regarding a new drug to treat hypertension. The information is based on a two-month, placebo controlled, randomized study of 1000 adults that showed a statistically significant average decrease in systolic pressure from 160 mm Hg to 141 mm Hg and in diastolic pressure from 98 mm Hg to 86 mm Hg. The most common adverse reactions were stomach upset and dizziness. Which of the following is the most significant limitation of this study?
  1. The study size was too small to assess
  2. The patients did not achieve guideline targets for
  3. Blood pressure is a surrogate
  4. Long term safety and efficacy were not
  5. Placebo is not an appropriate


  • Part G of Canada’s Food and Drug Regulations deals with which of the following?
  1. Vitamins and minerals
  2. Pharmaceuticals
  3. Controlled Drugs
  4. Benzodiazepines and Targeted Substances
  5. Narcotic Preparations


  • Which of the following is a significant barrier perceived by physicians, that impedes effective pharmacist-physician collaboration in the provision of patient care?
  1. Provision of patient-specific counselling by pharmacists
  2. Lack of adequate education and training of pharmacists
  3. Lack of pharmacist follow up in assessing patient outcomes
  4. Increased patient demands for more frequent medical appointments
  5. Interruption of physician workflow due to pharmacist communications


  • Which of the following statements regarding a disruption in the cold chain for vaccines is correct?
  1. Vaccines exposed to temperatures above the recommended range can have an increase in potency and should not be administered to any
  2. Vaccines exposed to temperatures below the recommended range should be labelled “do not use” and kept at room temperature until their integrity is
  3. Inactivated vaccines are more likely than live attenuated vaccines to have a shortened half-life when exposed to high temperatures (up to 37º C).
  4. Diluents of vaccines that have been frozen can be used as they do not contain any active ingredients.
  5. Vaccines containing an aluminum adjuvant experience a permanent loss of potency when subjected to






  • In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drug’s efficacy, associated workload, and acquisition Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available. Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows:


Drug Cost/Day Dosing Frequency Treatment Duration (days)
A $2.50 qid 14
B $2.25 once daily 14
C $5.00 bid 7
D $2.25 bid 7
E $2.25 qid 7

The most appropriate choice for the hospital is:

  1. Drug
  2. Drug
  3. Drug
  4. Drug
  5. Drug


  • Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?
  1. Balance sheet
  2. Statement of investments
  3. Statement of changes in financial position
  4. Income statement
  5. Statement of equity


  • The standard of universal access to government insured health care in Canada is mandated by:
  1. the Canada Health
  2. individual provinces and
  3. Health Canada’s Health Environment and Consumer Safety
  4. Canadian Agency for Drugs and Technologies in Health
  5. Public Health Agency of


  • Which of the following responsibilities can be appropriately delegated to a non-pharmacist manager of a community pharmacy?
  1. Purchasing narcotic drugs
  2. Selecting clinical decision software for the dispensary computer
  3. Coordinating staff scheduling
  4. Supervising pharmacy technicians
  5. Determining workflow for the pharmacy’s professional services


  • Academic detailing by pharmacists provides a service to physicians by:
  1. educating on improved prescription
  2. advising on optimal patient interviewing
  3. recommending strategies to avoid medication
  4. providing current information on best prescribing
  5. promoting the use of physician samples given to


  • A role of The National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities is to:
  1. audit the financial performance of provincial pharmacy licensing
  2. promote harmonization of pharmacy practice standards across
  3. establish a unified lobby voice for pharmacists from all types of practice
  4. provide mechanisms for the public to file complaints about pharmacy care
  5. accredit the pharmacy programs at Canadian universities


  • The term ‘perspective’ in the context of a pharmacoeconomic study refers to the:
  1. source of funding for conducting the pharmacoeconomic
  2. approach the researcher takes to analyze the research
  3. approach the researcher uses to limit confounding
  4. stakeholder whose interest is most represented in the study’s
  5. method used to facilitate communication of the study results in a journal


  • Which of the following would be the most effective method to prevent “inventory shrinkage” due to internal theft within a pharmacy?
  1. Assigning the responsibility of ordering and receiving of inventory to one
  2. Implementing an employee bag check program at the end of
  3. Hiring a uniformed security guard to monitor the pharmacy
  4. Offering incentives such as employee discounts on
  5. Installing mirrors and security cameras strategically throughout the


  • In the context of a pharmacy business, which of the following groups represent a market niche, rather than a market segment?
  1. Women
  2. The elderly population
  3. Children with asthma
  4. High-income earners
  5. Parents of young children


  • An identical screening test for a disease is used in two Communities (A and B), but the proportion of false positive results among those who test positive in Community A is lower than those who test positive in Community B. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
  1. The specificity of the test is lower in Community
  2. The specificity of the test is higher in Community
  3. The prevalence of disease is lower in Community
  4. The prevalence of disease is higher in Community
  5. It is not possible to explain the difference between Community A and


  • “Medically necessary” services are established in Canada by the:
  1. provincial
  2. provincial drug
  3. Canadian Medical
  4. federal
  5. Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of


  • Including a cost assessment in the protocol for a randomized, controlled clinical trial is called a:
  1. cost-benefit
  2. cost-minimization
  3. cost-effectiveness
  4. cost-efficacy analysis.
  5. cost-utility


  • The best study design to assess intermittent or transient drug exposures is a:
  1. case-control
  2. retrospective cohort
  3. randomized control
  4. case-crossover
  5. cross-sectional


  • Customer loyalty should be important to a pharmacy manager because it:
  1. reduces the amount of time that pharmacists must spend with
  2. generates a stream of high revenue from an identifiable customer
  3. helps the pharmacy staff to greet customers by their first
  4. protects the pharmacy manager from liability claims arising from dispensing
  5. is costly to attract new

There are few missing parts. Pls Download the PDF of Canada Registered Pharmacist Exam Question Paper

Canada Pharmacist Exam Question and Answers

Answers to above Questions


1. (d) 26. (d) 51. (c) 76. (e) 101. (b)
2. (c) 27. (c) 52. (e) 77. (b) 102. (e)
3. (a) 28. (c) 53. (c) 78. (e) 103. (e)
4. (a) 29. (d) 54. (e) 79. (e) 104. (e)
5. (e) 30. (b) 55. (c) 80. (b) 105. (d)
6. (b) 31. (b) 56. (d) 81. (e) 106. (e)
7. (a) 32. (c) 57. (d) 82. (b) 107. (b)
8. (d) 33. (a) 58. (c) 83. (c) 108. (d)
9. (a) 34. (c) 59. (e) 84. (d) 109. (c)
10. (a) 35. (a) 60. (b) 85. (c) 110. (e)
11. (c) 36. (d) 61. (c) 86. (b) 111. (e)
12. (a) 37. (e) 62. (a) 87. (b) 112. (d)
13. (c) 38. (c) 63. (a) 88. (a) 113. (d)
14. (a) 39. (a) 64. (a) 89. (a) 114. (a)
15. (c) 40. (a) 65. (b) 90. (b) 115. (c)
16. (d) 41. (a) 66. (c) 91. (d) 116. (d)
17. (d) 42. (c) 67. (a) 92. (c) 117. (b)
18. (a) 43. (c) 68. (d) 93. (c) 118. (d)
19. (a) 44. (c) 69. (c) 94. (a) 119. (b)
20. (b) 45. (b) 70. (d) 95. (a) 120. (c)
21. (b) 46. (b) 71. (d) 96. (e) 121. (d)
22. (a) 47. (d) 72. (d) 97. (c) 122. (a)
23. (c) 48. (d) 73. (e) 98. (d) 123. (d)
24. (d) 49. (c) 74. (c) 99. (a) 124. (d)
25. (e) 50. (a) 75. (b) 100.(e) 125. (e)


Pharmaceutical Industries in Canada

Entering into the Canadian Pharmaceutical Market has its challenges when it comes to harmonization, regulatory, logistics and export duties. Pharmaceuticals Medicines and Biologics are the priority of any country that produces them, with the highest priority being the manufacture of medications within the country. For this reason, pharmaceutical professionals, pharmacists, chemists and technologists are very important to the pharmaceutical manufacturing industry in Canada. GMD PharmaSolutions provides pharmaceutical manufacturing supply chain solutions to the pharmaceutical and life sciences industries in Canada. The company’s Good Manufacturing Practice facility provides pharmaceutical manufacturers with consistent quality control and supply support across an extensive range of pharmaceuticals products including pharmaceuticals, biologics, bulk APIs and generic drug ingredients.

With the influx of large and small pharmaceutical manufacturing companies into the country, the pharmaceutical industry is experiencing rapid growth. The potential for job creation and development in this sector is very high. With the increase in the number of people moving to Canada and the rest of the world for work and educational opportunities, Canada has become an attractive place to be in, other words it has become a mecca for pharmaceutical engineers. Several international pharmaceutical companies have established plants in Canada, contributing to the country’s pharmaceutical resources and skills.

Many pharmaceutical companies and generic drug producers have entered into joint venture agreements to share the cost and benefit from the research and development of new pharmaceutical drugs and medicines in Canada and the United States. These kinds of ventures are not unheard of but usually require a significant financial outlay, involving both parties. However, when done right and with a good deal of negotiating skill, joint venture opportunities can actually prove to be quite profitable for both parties. So, if you are looking for a career with a solid future and ample opportunities for growth, the pharmaceutical industry may be your perfect choice. Visit the website below for further details on pharmaceutical jobs in Canada and jobs in general in Canada and the United States.

Top 10 Leading Canadian Pharmaceutical Companies

  1. Johnson & Johnson/Actelion
  2. AbbVie
  3. Novartis
  4. Merck/Cubist
  5. Pfizer/Hospira
  6. Apotex
  7. Bayer
  8. Roche
  9. AstraZeneca
  10. GlaxoSmithKline

Major Pharma Companies in Canada

Myovant Sciences Ltd

Gilead Sciences Canada Inc.

Acacia Pharma Ltd

Biohaven Pharmaceuticals

Deciphera Pharmaceuticals, LLC

Genentech USA, Inc.

Immunomedics Inc.

Hoffmann-La Roche Ltd

Eli Lilly and Co.


Rhythm Pharmaceuticals, Inc.

Novo Nordisk, Inc.

MorphoSys US, Inc.

Epizyme, Inc.

Horizon Therapeutics


Ultragenyx Pharmaceutical Inc.

Trevena Inc.

Recordati Rare Diseases Inc.

Celgene Inc.

Incyte Corp.

Genentech USA, Inc.

Seagen Inc.
Urovant Sciences
NS Pharma, Inc.

Cabotegravir (Vocabria)
ViiV Healthcare ULC
Novartis Pharmaceuticals Corp.
Cedazuridine (Inqovi)C,O
Sun Pharmaceutical Industries Ltd
Laboratoire francais du fractionnement et des biotechnologies S.A.
BioNTech Manufacturing GmbH
Lundbeck Seattle BioPharmaceuticals, Inc.
ViiV Healthcare ULC
Hansa Biopharma AB
Viela Bio, Inc.
Sanofi-Aventis Canada Inc.
Eiger BioPharmaceuticals
Alnylam Pharmaceuticals Inc.
Jazz Pharmaceuticals
Y-mAbs Therapeutics, Inc.

How to become Pharmacist in Canada from India – Registered Pharmacist Clinical Pharmacy Technician

How to become Pharmacist in Canada from India

The Question answered in this article is How to become Pharmacist in Canada from India
Is this really possible?? I will give you the answer right away without bragging. You cannot be a registered pharmacist or a clinical Pharmacist or Pharmacy technician of Canada while you’re in your country like INDIA. But it is really happy to know that you can start the process of becoming a pharmacist in CANADA from India. Although, to finish this process you have to be actually a resident of the CANADA.

To know about how to become a registered pharmacist in Canada you need to first know about PEBC. Wonder what is PEBC? PEBC is an organization assessing the qualifications and competence of candidates for licensing by pharmacy provincial regulatory authorities in CANADA. To be crisp Pharmacy Examining Board of Canada (PEBC) is the national certification body for the pharmacy profession in Canada. The PEBC Board evaluates qualifications, develops and administers examinations including a national Qualifying Examination, and issues Certificates of Qualification. how to become a clinical pharmacist in Canada from India
All you need to know is that there’s no connection between taking the exam and having a PR or express entry or anything about immigration, yet, you will need some sort of visa to be able to enter Canada to take the exams, as long as you can enter and be present for the exam at the time, that all that matters for the PEBC

How to become a Registered Pharmacist in Canada for International students/ Immigration

The PEBC Certificate of Qualification for pharmacy technicians is an entry-to-practice licensing requirement in all provinces that have regulated pharmacy technicians. he PEBC Certificate of Qualification for pharmacists is a licensing requirement for entry-to-practice applicants (whether trained in Canada or elsewhere) in all provinces, except Quebec.

How to be Canadian Registered Pharmacist?
If you are from India or any other country, you need to take PEBC Qualifying Examination to become Pharmacist or Pharmacy technician in Canada. The Pharmacy Examining Board of Canada (PEBC) invites qualified pharmacists and pharmacy technicians to consider participating in the PEBC Qualifying Examination. The PEBC OSCE and OSPE consists of a series of clinical stations designed to assess communication and interpersonal skills and clinical or technical problem solving.
The PEBCQE-Part II for pharmacists is known as an OSCE (Objective Structured Clinical Examination) and the PEBCQE-Part II for pharmacy technicians is known as an OSPE (Objective Structured Performance Examination). The exams are held in major Canadian cities, you can find a list on the website.

How to know more information on PEBC Qualifying Examination

Log on to to know more. The PEBC office hours are Monday to Friday, 9:00 am to 4:00 pm Eastern Time, for receiving telephone calls and written correspondence by regular mail, email and fax. PEBC is not available for in-person candidate visits. Application forms may not be delivered in person, to the PEBC office. Note that the office is closed for lunch between 12:00 noon and 1:00 pm Eastern Time and no telephone calls are received during the lunch break.


Pandemic period allowed the Part 1 of the exam to be conducted online.  PEBC’s multiple-choice computer-based testing (CBT) examinations: the Pharmacist Evaluating Examination and Pharmacist/Pharmacy Technician Qualifying Examination – Part I (MCQ).egardless of where they live in Canada or internationally, candidates have the option to take PEBC’s upcoming exams either on-site at a Prometric test centre or by using Prometric’s ProProctor Remote Proctoring Platform. Please check out the official site for more information.

Top Canada Pharmacy Universities-REVIEWS How to Select?

10 best Canada universities

Are you planning to study pharmacy in Canada this article gives you whole idea all about the top colleges and top Canadian universities which provides pharmacy education. This article will surely help you to choose a University if you are considering Canada as an option for your higher studies. There are almost 10 universities which provide best education in pharmacy. Really want to do your under graduation or project post graduation you need to consider few points before you select your University.

  1. Let us discuss now things you need to to keep in your mind before actually trying to decide on a University.
    1. Which course you want to take is it undergraduate Bachelor of Pharmacy or doctorate of Pharmacy course or you want to complete your masters or a post graduate diploma in pharmacy subjects.
  2. 2. You need to have a complete Idea on all the courses of Canadian universities where a Pharmacy bachelor can apply.
  3. 3. After selecting your course you need to to search the best college which is providing your appropriate subject of interest. Almost all universities have a good standard but you need to specifically look for your subject of your concern.
  4. 4. You need to have an idea on what is your future idea of pursuing masters for graduation in Canada. Each would have a different perspective of going for higher studies in abroad. Some might think an exposure of of the subject or some other might think to settle as a permanent residence or some might think to just work for few years and return to India.
  5. 5. Do you decide what you wanna do after your completion of the course? This will help you to decide the place you want to study at the university because if you want to settle as an permanent resident need to go for a place where the province itself helps the international students to apply for the permanent residents easily.
  6. 6. The most important thing you need to consider before selecting a university or a province is that the availability of part time if you really need to pay your fees by yourself. The fee structure is really very high for the international students and everyone might need to have a part time pay off fees. So it is best to touch a place which I have an ample part-time jobs where students can do along with their studies.
  7. 7. You need to consider is the cost of living of that particular place if you don’t have any problem with finances then you don’t really need to think about this but to choose a good University. When you really have some issues with your finances you might be smart to select a good University in a good place with minimum expenses for your month.

Top 7 Canada Pharmacy Universities

University of Toronto
Leslie Dan Faculty of Pharmacy
144 College Street
Toronto, Ontario M5S 3M2
Tel: 416 978-2889
Fax: 416 978-8511

University of British Columbia
Faculty of Pharmaceutical Sciences
2146 East Mall
Vancouver, British Columbia V6T 1Z3
Tel: 604 822-2343
Fax: 604 822-3035

Memorial University of Newfoundland
School of Pharmacy
Health Sciences Centre
St. John’s, Newfoundland A1B 3V6
Tel: 709 777-8300
Fax: 709 777-7044
E-mail: [email protected]

Université de Montréal
Faculté de pharmacie
C.P. 6128, Succ. Centre-ville
Montréal, Québec H3C 3J7
Tel: 514 343-6422
Fax: 514 343-2102
Université Laval
Faculté de pharmacie
Pavillon Ferdinand-Vandry
Québec, Québec G1V 0A6
Tel: 418 656-3211
Fax: 418 656-2305
E-mail: [email protected]

University of Alberta
Faculty of Pharmacy & Pharmaceutical Sciences
2-55 Medical Sciences Building
Edmonton, Alberta T6G 2H1
Tel: 780 492-3362
E-mail: [email protected]

University of Manitoba
Faculty of Pharmacy
Apotex Centre
750 McDermot Avenue
Winnipeg, Manitoba R3E 0T5
Tel: 204 474-9306
Fax: 204 474-7617
E-mail: [email protected]

University of Saskatchewan
College of Pharmacy and Nutrition
110 Science Place
Saskatoon, Saskatchewan S7N 5C9
Tel: 306 966-6327
Fax: 306 966-6377
E-mail: [email protected]

University of Waterloo
School of Pharmacy
200 University Avenue West
Waterloo, ON N2L 3G1
Tel: (519) 888-4499
Fax: (519) 888-7910
E-mail: [email protected]

Dalhousie University
College of Pharmacy
5968 College Street, PO Box 15000
Halifax, Nova Scotia B3H 4R2
Tel: 902 494-2378
Fax: 902 494-1396
E-mail: [email protected]

University of Saskatchewan

This is good old college rest with good reputation. Here you can get program where you can study your masters. Importance of this university is the province you are in. Province provides you points even after your Canadian studies to if you let to settle down there as permanent resident. Cities in this province are really affordable and economical for all the international students. The housing and the cost of living is really low when per to the provinces of Canada.

Université de Montréal

This is also a good option for international students especially from India with good reputation. Here you can get program where you can study your masters. Importance of this university is the province you are in. you need to know about the province before you land. this is land of French. you will be at a good place if you have a knowledge of French language before you take up your studies.  Part time jobs become a piece of cake if you know the French language. Cities in this province are really affordable and economical for all the international students. The housing and the cost of living is really low when per to the provinces of Canada.

NAPLEX FPGEE OSPAP KAPS PEBC Pharmacist Exam Quick Revision #1 Pharmacology Guide

NAPLEX FPGEE OSPAP KAPS PEBC Pharmacist Exam Quick Revision #1 Pharmacology Guide

Here Pharmawiki is presenting last day revision for all the aspirants of different pharmacist examinations like  NAPLEX FPGEE OSPAP KAPS PEBC Pharmacist Exam. You can consider it as a Quick Revision on Pharmacology  subject which will help you to qualify and score well in these examinations. This tiny Guide will surely help you to assess your exam preparation level.


1. venous ulcer treatment >
exclude arteriopathy (eg ABPI), control
oedema, prevent infection, compression bandaging.
2. Cushings – Diagnosis: 24hr urinary free cortisol. Addisons >
short synacthen.
3. Rash on buttocks – Dermatitis herpetiformis (coeliac dx).
4. AF with TIA >
Warfarin. Just TIA’s with no AF >
5. Herpes encephalitis >
temporal lobe calicification OR temporoparietal
attentuation – subacute onset i.e. Several days.
6. Obese woman, papilloedema/headache >
Benign Intercanial
7. Drug induced pneumonitis >
methotrexate or amiodarone.
8. chest discomfort and dysphagia >
9. foreign travel, macpap rash/flu like illnes >
HIV acute.
10. cause of gout >
dec urinary excretion.
11. bullae on hands and fragule SKIN torn by minor trauma >
cutanea tarda.
12. Splenectomy >
need pneumococcal vaccine AT LEAST 2 weeks preop
and for life.
13. primary hrperparathyroidism >
high Ca, normal/low PO4, normal/high
PTH (in elderly).
14. middle aged man with KNEE arthritis >
gonococcal sepsis (older
people >
15. sarcoidosis, erythema nodosum, arthropathy >
Loffgrens syndrome
benign, no Rx needed.
16. TREMOR postural,slow progression,titubation, relieved by OH>
essential TREMOR AutDom. (MS – titbation, PD – no titubation)
17. electrolytes disturbance causing confusion – low/high Na.

FPGEE | National Association of Boards of Pharmacy

18. contraindications lung Surgery >
FEV dec bp 130/90, Ace inhibitors (if
proteinuria analgesic induced headache.
21. 1.5 cm difference btwn kidneys >
Renal artery stenosis >
resonance angiogram.
22. temporal tenderness>
temporal arteritis >
steroids > 90% ischaemic
neuropathy, 10% retinal art occlusion.
23. severe retroorbital, daily headache, lacrimation >
cluster headache.
24. pemphigus – involves mouth (mucus membranes), pemphigoid – less
serious NOT mucosa.
25. diagnosis of polyuria >
water deprivation test, then DDAVP.
26. insulinoma >
24 hr supervised fasting hypoglycaemia.
27. Diabetes Random >7 or if >6 OGTT (75g) >
>11.1 also seen in HCT.
28. causes of villous atrophy: coeliac (lymphocytic infiltrate), Whipples , dec
Ig, lymphoma, trop sprue (rx tetracycline).
29. diarrhoea, bronchospasm, flushing, tricuspid stenosis >
gut carcinoid c
liver mets.
3/5/2017 MRCP part 1 2/5
30. hepatitis B with general deterioration >
hepaocellular carcinoma.
31. albumin normal, total protein high >
myeloma (hypercalcaemia,
32. HBSag positive, HB DNA not detectable >
chornic carier.
33. Inf MI, artery invlived >
Right coronary artert.


NAPLEX Exam guide

34. Aut dom conditions: Achondroplasia, Ehler Danlos, FAP, FAMILIAL
hyperchol,Gilberts, Huntington’s, Marfans’s, NFT I/II, Most porphyrias,
tuberous sclerosis, vWD, PeutzJeghers.
35. X linked: Beck/Duch musc dyst, alports, Fragile X, G6PD, Haemophilia
36. Loud S1: MS, hyperdynamic, short PR. Soft S1: immobile MS, MR.
37. Loud S2: hypertension, AS. Fixed split: ASD. Opening snap: MOBILE
MS, severe near S2.
38. HOCM/MVP inc
by standing, dec by squating (inc all others). HOCM
inc by valsalva, decs all others. Sudden death athlete, FH, Rx.
Amiodarone, ICD.
39. MVP sudden worsening post MI. Harsh systolic murmur radites to
40. Dilated Cardiomyopathy: OH, bp, thiamine/selenium deficiency, MD,
cocksackie/HIV, preg, doxorubicin, infiltration (HCT, sarcoid), tachycardia.
41. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy: sclerodermma, amyloid, sarcoid, HCT,
glycogen storage, Gauchers, fibrosis, hypereosinophilia Lofflers,
caracinoid, malignancy, radiotherapy, toxins.
42. Tumor compressing Respiratory tract >
investigation: flow volume
43. Guillan Barre syndrome: check VITAL CAPACITY.
44. Horners – sweating lost in upper face only – lesion proximal to common
carotid artery.
45. Internuclear opthalmoplegia: medial longitudinal fasciculus connects
CN nucleus 34.
Ipsilateral adduction palsy, contralateral nystagmus. Aide
memoire (TRIES TO YANK THE ipsilateral BAD eye ACROSS THE nose ).
Convergence retraction nystagmus, but convergence reflex is normal.
Causes: MS, SLE, Miller fisher, overdose(barb, phenytoin, TCA), Wernicke.
46. Progressive Supranuclear palsy: Steel Richardson. Absent voluntary
downward gaze, normal dolls eye . i.e. Occulomotor nuclei intact,
supranuclear Pathology .

The Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences (KAPS) Exam

47. Perinauds syndrome: dorsal midbrain syndrome, damaged midrain and
superior colliculus: impaired upgaze (cf PSNP), lid retraction, convergence
preserved. Causes: pineal tumor, stroke, hydrocephalus, MS.
48. demetia, gait abnormaily, urinary incontinence. Absent papilloedema>
Normal pressure hydrocephalus.
49. acute red eye >
acute closed angle glaucoma >> less common (ant
uveitis, scleritis, episcleritis, subconjuntival haemmorrhage).
50. wheeles, URTICARIA , drug induced >
3/5/2017 MRCP part 1 3/5
51. sweats and weight gain >
52. diagnostic test for asthma >
morning dip in PEFR >20%.
53. Causes of SIADH : chest/cerebral/pancreas Pathology , porphyria,
malignancy, Drugs (carbamazepine, chlorpropamide, clofibrate,
atipsychotics, NSAIDs, rifampicin, opiates)
54. Causes of Diabetes Insipidus: Cranial: tumor, infiltration, trauma
Nephrogenic: Lithium, amphoteracin, domeclocycline, prologed
hypercalcaemia/hypornatraemia, FAMILIAL X linked type
55. bisphosphonates:inhibit osteoclast activity, prevent steroid incduced
osteoperosis (vitamin D also).
56.returned from airline flight, TIA>
paradoxical embolus do TOE.
57. alcoholic, given glucose develops nystagmus >
B1 deficiency
(wernickes). Confabulation>
58. monoartropathy
with thiazide >
gout (neg birefringence). NO
ALLOPURINOL for acute.
59. painful 3rd nerve palsy >
posterior communicating artery aneurysm till
proven otherwise
60 late complication of scleroderma >
pumonaryhypertention plus/minus
61. causes of erythema mutliforme: lamotrigine
62. vomiting, abdominal pain, hypothyroidism >
Addisonian crisis (TFT
typically abnormal in this setting DO NOT give thyroxine).
63. mouth/genital ulcers and oligarthritis >
behcets (also eye /SKIN
lesions, DVT)
64. mixed drug overdose most important step >
Nacetylcysteine (time
dependent prognosis)
65. cavernous sinus syndrome 3rd
nerve palsy, proptosis, periorbital
swlling, conj injectn
66. asymetric parkinsons >
likely to be idiopathic
67. Obese, NIDDM female with abnormal LFT’s >
NASH (nonalcoholic
steatotic hepatitis)
68. fluctuating level of conciousness in elderly plus/minus deterioration >
chronic subdural. Can last even longer than 6 months
69. Sensitivity >
TP/(TP plus FN) e.g. For SLE ANA
highly sens,
dsDNA:highly specific
70. RR is 8%. NNT is >
100/8 >
50/4 >
25/2 >

Australian Pharmacy Council

71. ipsilateral ataxia, Horners, contralateral loss pain/temp >
PICA stroke
(lateral medulary syndrome of Wallenburg)
72. renal stones (80% calcium, 10% uric acid, 5% ammonium (proteus),
3% other). Uric acid and cyteine stone are radioluscent.
73. hyperprolactinaemia (allactorrohea, amenorrohea, low FSH/LH) >
antags (metoclopramide, chlorpromazine, cimetidine NOT TCA’s),
pregnancy, PCOS, pit tumor/microadenoma, stress.
74. Distal, asymetric arthropathy >
3/5/2017 MRCP part 1 4/5
75. episodic headache with tachycardia >
76. very raised WCC >
ALWAYS think of leukaemia.

OSPAP qualification

77. Diagnosis of CLL >
immunophenotyping NOT cytogenetics, NOT
bone marrow
78. Prognostic factors for AML >
bm karyotype (good/poor/standard) >>
WCC at diagnosis.
79. pancytopenia with raised MCV >
check B12/folate first (other causes
possble, but do this FIRST). Often associayed with phenytoin use >
decreased folate
80. miscariage, DVT, stroke >
LUPUS anticoagulant >
81. Hb elevated, dec ESR >
polycythaemua (2ndry if paO2 low)
82. anosmia, delayed puberty >
Kallmans syndrome (hypogonadotrophic
83. diag of PKD >
renal US even if think anorexia nervosa
85. commonest finding in G6PD hamolysis >
86. mitral stenosis: loud S1 (soft s1 if severe), opening snap.. Immobile
valve >
no snap.

PEBC Guide to Pharmacist

87. Flank pain, urinalysis:blood, protein >
renal vein thrombosis. Causes:
nephrotic syndrome, RCC, amyloid, acute pyelonephritis, SLE
(atiphospholipid syndrome which is recurrent thrombosis, fetal loss, dec plt.
Usual cause of cns manifestations assoc with LUPUS ancoagulant,
anticardiolipin ab)
88. anaemia in the elderly assume GI malignancy
89. hypothermia, acute renal failure >
rhabdomyolysis (collapse assumed)
90. pain, numbness lateral upper thigh >
meralgia paraesthesia (lat
cutaneous nerve compression usally by by ing ligament)
91. diagnosis of haemochromatosis: screen with Ferritin, confirm by
tranferrin saturation, genotyping. If nondiagnostic do liver biopsy 0.3%
92. 40 mg hidrocortisone divided doses (bd) >
10 mg prednisolone (ie.
Prednislone is x4 stronger)
93. BTS: TB guidlines – close contacts >
Heaf test >
positive CXR,
negative >
repeat Heaf in 6 weeks. Isolation not required.
94. Diptheria >
exudative pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, cardio and neuro
95. Indurated plaques on cheeks, scarring alopecia, hyperkeratosis over
hair follicles >>
Discoid LUPUS
96. wt loss, malabsoption, inc ALP >
pancreatic cancer
97. foreign travel, tender RUQ, raised ALP >
liver abscess do U/S
98. wt loss, anaemia (macro/micro), no obvious cause >
coeliac (diarrhoea
does NOT have to be present)
99. haematuria, proteinuria, best investigation >
if glomerulonephritis
suspected >
renal biopsy

100. Acromegaly – Diagnosis: OGTT followed by GH conc.
101. Malaria, incubation within 3/12. can be relapsing /remitting. Vivax and
Ovale (West Africa) longer imcubation.
102. Fever, lymphadenopathy, lymphocytosis, pharygitis >
heterophile antibodies
103. GI bleed after endovascular AAA Surgery >
aortoenteric fistula

Pharma Universities in Melbourne MS Pharmacy Australia

Pharma universities in Melbourne Melbourne is one of the most primary and well known places in Australia.  Melbourne stands as the coastal capital of the southeastern Australian state of Victoria.  The city has developed highly and flourished well in terms of availability of various requirements of social life that includes plazas, restaurants, bars, universities, schools, colleges and the list is endless.  It truly depicts the cultural heritage of the people living in Australia.  Since founded on 30 August 1835, this city has developed itself to a greater extend.  To this it has been found that some of Australia’s most well established and more prominent schools, colleges and Universities are based here.  Today we try to look at this aspect in a bit detail in relation to some of the best prominent Pharma Universities.


Pharma being one of the most important fields of learning, there are many Universities in Melbourne which helps Pharma student to get their Pharma degree easily.  Basically these Universities allow those who are willing to do their Bachelor’s, master or PhD on a particular subject.  One of such University available in Melbourne is University of Melbourne.  It helps student to obtain their Bachelor’s degree as well as complete their Master in Pharma.  It has got high repute and is considered to be one of the finest Universities in Australia providing first class learning experience for the students especially when in consideration of studying pharmacy.  Next is the Monash University, Clayton Campus.  This is considered to be one of the finest in imparting pharmacy education to the students after Melbourne University.  It has got one of the finest batches of teachers who impart education of international standards making them to stands apart from rest.  The curriculum in relation to Pharma is excellent and covers wide range of the subject from an overall point of view.  It is the second oldest university in the state of Victoria.  This University four campuses in Australia and one found in Malaysia.  Then there is the Faculty of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences.  This campus is purely dedicated to the students of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences.  This University purely deals with education in relation to Pharmacy, pharmaceutical and area of concern in relation to this.

Pharma Universities in Melbourne MS Pharmacy Australia

Other than those mentioned here, there are different other Universities in Melbourne which provides the scope for the students to their higher studies in relation to Pharma and dedicate their life to this profession.  The most important aspect in relation to this is that most of the Universities have proper curriculum and study materials with learned faculties which maintains a healthy yet a streamline form of education in relation to Pharma and other related field of study.


Pharma is definitely a subject that needs more and more attention and the Universities of Melbourne are working hard for the betterment and improvement of this field of Science.  These Universities maintains a strict curriculum and provides world class curriculum in relation to Pharma.  Here the University allows only students who are willing to do their Bachelor’s or Masters’ degrees.  The amount need to joint the course is very minimal and anybody fulfilling the specific criteria of the University in concern can take up Pharma as a field of study.


According to statistics obtained from different sources, the average pay for a Pharmacist in Australia is AU$32.59 per hour and the average pay for a Pharmacist is around AU$67,960 per year.  Thus anybody who wants to take Pharmacy as a career living in Australia and does not know where to start from, then Melbourne can be the best place to start with.

How to Get Pharmacy Higher Education in Australia?

How to Get Pharmacy Higher Education in Australia?

If your question is How to get pharmacy higher education in Australia? You will get answer here.Getting higher education of a subject of your choice can be pretty easy in Australia.  You need to fulfill at least the minimal criteria that have been particularly mentioned by the Australian Education Ministry.  Providing the same you can easily get your higher education here in Australia.  Now to become a pharmacist in Australia firstly you need to complete a tertiary degree in pharmacy.  The tertiary degree basically means getting a graduate or bachelor degree in minimum.  Bachelor degree from one of the University from Australia or the course that you have past must have proper recognition and approved by the Australian Education Ministry on a whole.  The degree can also be a master degree from Australia or approved by the education ministry as well.  Now once you have simply fulfilled the minimum criteria required then you need to look out for other higher courses involving it.  Today we look at the way to receive higher education in Australia in relation to pharmacy in short and precise way.

There are number of good pharmacy schools in Australia from where you can able to achieve your higher education in pharmacy. First, there is the University of Sydney.  They have the course-offering master of pharmacy program to students for those willing to go with it.  It is a two-year full time program.  Then there is Curtin University, which offers Master degree course in Clinical pharmacy for those who have successfully completed their bachelor degree in the same.  Next comes the University of Queensland, the Griffith University which offers a 18 month full time program for studying pharmacy.  University of Canberra also provides the same.  Now in order to do higher studies with Pharmacy and eventually get a pharmacist degree requires some time.  Now in terms of money that you require in order to study pharmacy is AU$20,000 (US$14,400) to $37,000 (US$26,600) for.  This is obtained from the official government site of Australia.  In order to do higher studies in pharmacy one needs to first earn a undergraduate degree completing his or her secondary examination.  Once it has been obtained, the student is eligible for applying for the bachelor degree course as per the rule laid by the government.  Completing the bachelor degree program would provide the pathway for getting yourself enrolled to the Master Degree Program especially designed for pharama students to do higher studies.  A full completion of the master degree will take up to two years generally.  Now once master degree is completed the government of Australia (the Education Ministry) has programmed a 48 week paid internship.  One needs to complete this in order to earn a repute of pharmacist.  Now in order to complete this full course, ie in order to become a pharmacist and earn a degree in Australia it would require at least six years in total to complete.

How to Get Pharmacy Higher Education in Australia?

How to Get Pharmacy Higher Education in Australia?

Now in order to study with pharmacy getting the right subject combination is very important and essential.  This includes English language, Physics, Mathematics, Chemistry, Biology and a trade subject in total.

Being a pharmacist in Australia can provide you with a handsome income on an overall basis.  The charges are quite decent and the expected income is higher than usually assumed.  According to stats obtained on an average the earning ranges typically between $122,229 and $138,781.  Thus looking at this earning potential, one can simply look out for a higher education in Pharmacy if residing in Australia.  The work not only will provide a good earning potential but also will provide a decent repute in society as well.



SCHOLARSHIP FOR PHARMACY STUDENTS: A scholarship is a programme that backs up the students with the purpose of helping them through financial aid. The findings say it is targeted to the students mostly who want to study at the tertiary level including Universities and colleges. Many learners drop out after passing the 10th or 12th grade because they cannot afford to pay for tertiary studies due to lack of funds. Their dreams are not fulfilled in spite of earning good marks. Although they meet minimum requirements to be admitted to the university the problem remains if they cannot afford their further studies. The scholarship programme is that aid to bridge the gap.

Normally the scholarships are given to those students who fulfill some of the criteria based on the following parameters:

  • Merit-based- Merit Scholarships can be awarded based on fulfilling all the criteria including performance in a particular school subject or even club participation or community service.
  • Need-based- Typically Academic Scholarships use a minimum Grade Point Average or standardized test score such as the ACT or SAT to select awardees.
  • Athletic- based on the athletic performance of a student Athletic Scholarships are generally applicable and used as a tool to recruit high-performing athletes for their school’s athletic teams.
  • Student-specific- For some learners/students, Government and Companies want only them to benefit from these programmes. E.g. – South African citizens are covered by the Scholarship programme in SOUTH AFRICAN countries.

Besides these, Scholarships may rely on criteria of Career-specific, College-specific, Branding Scholarships and Creative Contest Scholarships.


Every year scholarships programmes are offered for pharmacy students at all levels in India as well as internationally. In this article, we have discussed solely the scholarships. This is intended thinking towards the meritorious and needy students who are eligible for earning a scholarship. Here we are naming some of the scholarship programmes offered to Pharmacy students:-

  1. APhA Foundation Student Scholarship
  2. NCPA Foundation Scholarships
  3. Postdoctoral Researcher – Radiopharmacy and Molecular Imaging
  4. Blooms The Chemist – John Sidgreaves Scholarship in Pharmacy
  5. PhD Studentship Basic Bioscience
  6. TMA Pai PhD Scholarships at Manipal University in India
  7. RGU School of Pharmacy and Life Sciences International Bursaries in UK
  8. 4 HDR Scholarships for Domestic and International Students at UTS in Australia

9.      Science Undergraduate Scholarships at University of Strathclyde in UK,

10.  Pharos University Scholarships in Egypt

11.  Finland University of Helsinki Pharmacy Postdoctoral Research Position

12.  Science Undergraduate Scholarships at University of Strathclyde in UK


Not all the costs mentioned below are covered by every scholarship programme as each of them has its own costs allocations.

  1. Transport Fees

Money for transport will be given to him/her if the student is studying outside the campus or stays at a distant place from the campus.

  1. Tuition fees

The money needed by the student to learn from the Institution through lectures, classes, Lab equipment use and smart classes is provided. More or less all the programmes do pay these fees.

  1. Accommodation

Usually, the amount is paid directly to the institution if you are staying inside the campus or hostel, but if you are staying outside the campus money is paid directly into your personal account.

  1. Book Fees

Cost of Study materials including the books, computers, Cell phone, tablets are paid directly to students account.



What are the top US business schools for an MBA education in pharma healthcare?

When you have raise a doubt of where to pursue your MBA or niche specific course probably depends on if you want to pursue MBA education in pharma healthcare or normal MBA. If you want to pursue a pharma career, you would lean more toward the Pharma school rankings, and if not, weigh the business school rankings more heavily.


Creating a MBA ranking is tough because of how varied MBA career paths can be. So here is the answer for the direct question top US business schools for an MBA education especially in pharma healthcare

Wharton/Kellogg/Duke/Columbia are the top four for healthcare MBA programs in the US.

Kellogg – Kellogg School of Management
Duke-Duke’s Fuqua School of Business Health Sector Management


Top US business schools for an MBA education in pharma healthcare

A successful career in the pharmaceutical world demands both fundamental business skills and in-depth pharmaceutical knowledge. The USP MBA program provides both. The USP MBA program is unique in that every course offered is taught within the context of the healthcare field. Students learn how to predict global healthcare trends, develop pharmaceutical product strategies, do pharmaceutical marketing, understand the research and development process from drug discovery through clinical testing, analyze and interpret healthcare regulatory practices and public health policies, and apply strategic and creative thinking to challenges that are unique to the pharmaceutical industry. In addition the USP MBA program stresses the competencies that are critical to career success in the modern healthcare field: critical thinking, analytical assessment, presentation skills, and cultural astuteness.

You may choose to pursue an MBA in one of three batches:
1) evening track,
2) executive (or weekend) track
3) online.

Wharton/Duke would probably top the list.

If you have any suggestions for the list of top US Business Schools for Pharma Healthcare MBA please do write to us through the comment box below. You can help our PharmaWiki through your words.