Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Questions General Studies Part 1

Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Questions General Studies

GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY

1. In a Dengue patient, the following would fall down drastically?
Count of Platelets
2. The following is generally used in bone healing in humans?
CissusQuadrangularis
3. Radioactivity was discovered by?
Henri Becquerel
4. The most abundant element in the Universe is?
Hydrogen
5. In a healthy adult, what is the approximate percentage of white blood cells in total blood
volume?
One percent
6. During winter in cold countries, the following is mixed to melt the ice on the roads?
Salt
7. Which of the following planets moves around the Sun with highest speed?
Mercury
8. Apart from Sun light and Carbon Dioxide, the source for production of Oxygen through
photosynthesis in plants is?
Water
9. In Chlorophyll, the central metal ion is?
Magnesium
10. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
Hydrogen
11. Which of the following is an inorganic lubricant?
Graphite
12. When an iron nail gets rusted, its weight?
Increases
13. In its natural state, the odour of LPG is?
LPG is odourless gas
14. Out of the following, which compoundhas highest solubility in Water?
Glucose
15. Gamma Rays are?
Rays without any charge
16. The most common method Uranium enrichment is?
Centrifugation
17. In vulcanization of natural rubber, the following is used?
Sulphur
18. If a person goes down into a deep mine, his weight?
Decreases slightly
19. Oyster shells are composed primarily of?
Calcium Carbonate
20. A hydrometer is used to measure?
Relative density of liquids
21. The intensity of earthquakes is measured using?
Mercalli Scale
22. Recently India held a 2+2 dialogue with?
USA
23. The theme of National Statistics Day celebrated on 29th June, 2018 was?
Quality Assurance in Official Statistics
24. What of the following is not one of the objectives of Solar Charkha mission launched by
President of India in June, 2018?
To provide solar charkhas to 10 lakh handloom weavers
25. Manufacture and import of which of the following hormones is banned by Government of India
from 1st July, 2018?
Oxytocin
26. Who amongst the following is one of the winners of World Food Prize, 2018?
Lawrance Haddad
27. Who is the present Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
Harivansh Narayan Singh
28. Which country gifted two giant tortoises to India, which are kept at Nehru Zoological Park,
Hyderabad in June, 2018?
Seychelles
29. What is the name of the program launched recently by Indian Railways on ethics in public
governance?
Mission Satyanishta
30. By which name, the longest lunar eclipse of the Century (occurred in July, 2018) is called?
Blood moon

Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Previous Questions

31. Who amongst the following got Ramon Magsaysay Award for 2018?
SonamWangchuk
32. What is name of the flagship programme launched by Government of India in 2018 aiming at
holistic nutrition for children, adolescents, pregnant women and lactating mothers?
PoshanAbhiyan
33. To which country India donated 200 cows during Prime Minister’s visit in July, 2018?
Rwanda
34. What is the name of the navy sailor from India, who participated in Golden Globe Race and was
rescued by a French fishing vessel when his boat was damaged in deep waters recently?
AbhilashTomy
35. The draft of National Register of Citizens was recently published with reference to the State of?
Assam
36. Which High Court of India recently declared entire animal kingdom as legal entities with rights,
duties and liabilities of a living person?
Uttarakhand High Court
37. As per the Public Affairs Index, 2018, which is the best governed State in India?
Kerala
38. How many medals are won by India at Asian Games, 2018?
69
39. Who out of the following persons won a Gold medal at Asian Games, 2018 in Wrestling?
VineshPhogat
40. Which of the following athletes is nicknamed as “Dhing Express”?
Hima Das
41. Who won the Gold medal in Women’s Singles Category of Badminton at Asian Games, 2018?
Tai Tzu-Ying
42. Which of the following Indus Valley sites is in India?
Lothal
43. Ancient people of South India buried the dead along with weapons, tools, pottery etc in graves
and placed big stones around the graves. These structures are known as?
Megaliths
44. Which metal did the ancient Indians use first?
Copper
45. The administrative setup of early Aryans was in the nature of?
Tribal polity
46. The interaction of Indian craftsman with Greeks and Romans resulted in the following art form?
Gandhara Art
47. Which of the following Satavahana Kings had immense love for overseas trade and navigation so
much so that the coins issued by him had picture of a ship?
YagnasriSatakarni
48. The Grand Trunk Road from Indus to Bengal was restored by one of the following rulers?
Sher Shah Suri
49. The Mansabdari system was introduced by?
a. Sher Shah
b. Akbar
c. Jehangir
d. Aurangazeb
50. In Mughal period, the letter of credit issued by Shroffs (money keepers) to people who
deposited cash for collecting it later or collecting the cash at a different place after journey was
called?
a. Farman
Hundi
51. Out of the following, who plundered Delhi and carried away the Koh-i-Noor diamond?
Nadir Shah
52. Out of the following, who introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal?
MurshidQuli Khan
53. Which was the seat of power of Peshwas?
Poona
54. Who were executed by the British along with Bhagat Singh on 23rd March, 1931?
Sukhdev and Rajguru
55. The Poorna Swaraj declaration was promulgated by Indian National Congress in 1929 at?
Lahore Session
56. At the time of Independence, which of the following Nawabs announced accession to Pakistan
though most of the population desired to stay with India?
Nawab of Junagadh
57. Partition of Bengal was done by the British in the year?
1905
58. Out of the below, a prominent leader of militant nationalist thought was?
Bal GangadharTilak
59. The Swadeshi movement was also known in Andhra region as?
VandeMataram Movement
60. Out of the following who wrote the “History of Indian National Congress”
BhogarajuPattabhiSitaramayya

Drug Inspector Exam Bihar AP Maharastra Kerala Important Solved Paper

61. Why did Congress Ministries in provinces resign in 1939?
Protesting against decision of Viceroy to make India as party to war with Germany
62. Approximately how many people died in Great Bengal Famine of 1943 (choose the nearest
figure)?
About 20 lakh
63. The visit of Mahatma Gandhi to Naokhali between November 1946 to March 1947 after the riots
resulted in?
Gandhiji failed to stop the enmity and violence
64. Out of the following, who first referred the matter of “Kashmir” to the United Nations Security
Council in 1948?
India
65. Out of the persons below, Who founded the Hindusthan Socialist Republican Association?
Bhagat Singh
66. Out of the below, India is part of the following land?
Gondwana Land
67. The valleys in Siwalik ranges are called as?
Duns
68. What is a “doab”?
An area between two rivers
69. “Ooty” is situated in?
Nilgiris
70. Which of the following places in Andaman & Nicobar Islands is of volcanic origin?
Barren Island
71. Which of the following rivers is located in Brahmaputra basin?
Teesta
72. Which of the following is the standard meridian of India?
82°30′ E
73. Which of the following places in India receives the highest average annual rainfall?
Mausimram
74. In Kerala, the pre-monsoon showers are popularly known as?
Mango showers
75. Hangul deer is endemic habitant of?
Kashmir
76. Red Sanders are endemic species of the following hill range?
Seshachalam range
77. What is the position of Andhra Pradesh State in Lime Stone production (quantity) in India?
Third Position
78. Sillimanite mining is done in the following district of Andhra Pradesh?
Srikakulam
79. As per Census 2011, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh has lowest number of
rural population as percentage of total population of the District?
Visakhapatnam
80. As per Census, 2011, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh had the highest
percentage of child population (as percentage of total population of the district)?
Kurnool
81. The highest peak in Eastern Ghats is?
Aroya Konda
82. As mentioned in the AP Reorganization Act, 2014, which port was to be developed by the
Government?
Duggarajapatnam
83. The grasslands of North America are known as?
Prairies
84. The varying lengths of day and light at different times of year at any place on earth is due to the
fact that?
The axis of the earth is inclinedto the elliptic of revolution around Sun
85. Majority of the deserts of the World lie between the following latitudes?
0 to 15 degree north and south latitudes
86. The Masai tribesman are residents of?
Savannahs
87. The temperature of the “Photosphere” of Sun is about?
6000 degrees centigrade
88. Which is the most earthquake prone nation in the World?
Japan
89. As per latest data, which Country of the World produces the highest quantity of Gold?
China
90. As per State of Forest report, 2015, which of the following States has highest forest cover as
percentage of its area?
Mizoram

Drug inspector preparation notes

91. Which of the following stretches of Andhra Pradesh is most vulnerable to Cyclones?
Ongole to Machilipatnam
92. Which Cyclone caused maximum loss of human life in Andhra Pradesh?
1977 Cyclone
93. The speed of a Tsunami wave approaching the shore would be?
The Tsunami wave slows down in speed
94. In the post disaster scenario, which of the following operations play major role?
Search and Rescue
95. In earth quake resistant design, the door and window openings on walls should be?
Small and centrally located
96. Which of the following Statements is most appropriate?
I. Earthquakes do not kill people
II. It is badly designed buildings that kill people
Both Statements are true and Statement II is the reason behind Statement I
97. For the purpose of reducing wind force on a roof, the following type of roof is preferable?
Pyramidal type
98. The responsibility to cope up with natural disasters essentially lies with?
State Government
99. The nodal ministry to coordinate disaster management operations in case of biological disasters
is?
Ministry of Home Affairs
100. Who heads the National Crisis Management Committee constituted by Central Government for
disaster management?
Cabinet Secretary
101. Which Article of the Constitution prescribes six freedoms?
Article 19
102. The Union of India is?
Indissoluble union of States
103. The Inter State Council is Constituted under which Article of the Constitution?
Article 263
104. Out of the following, what is true about the fundamental rights?
They are granted by the Constitution
105. To become a Member of Parliament of India, a person has to be?
No educational qualification is necessary

Drug Inspector Exam previous solved General studies Questions paper
106. The word “Secularism” was added to the preamble of the Constitution through?
42nd Amendment
107. The Salaries and allowances of Judges of Supreme Court of India are met from?
Consolidated fund of India
108. The right to education is a?
Fundamental right
109. In which year, Emergency was promulgated by President due to “internal disturbances”?
1975
110. What is the minimum age for a person to be elected as President of India?
35 years
111. How many readings would a bill undergo in a house of Parliament before it is passed?
Three readings
112. How many members are nominated by the President to Rajya Sabha from the fields of Arts,
Literature, Science, Social Service etc?
12
113. In how many days after receipt, the Legislative Council has to send back a “money bill” to
Legislative Assembly?
14 days
114. Which of the following is an “essential function” of Gram Panchayat?
Maintaining burial grounds
115. Out of the following, which is the major source of revenue for Panchayats?
Property Tax
116. Out of the following, which is not a feature of the 1991 New Economic Policy?
Nationalization
117. As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, the objective is to stabilize the population by the
year?
2045
118. FEMA was passed in the parliament in the year 1999 replacing FERA. One of the objectives of
FEMA as stated in the preamble of the Act is?
Facilitating external trade and payments
119. The Five Year Plan that proposed land reforms through cooperative land management for the
first time is?
Second Five Year Plan
120. The growth of the Indian economy in the post 1991 period is mainly attributable to?
Service led growth
121. The most important item in India’s imports in term of expenditure for most of the post-reform
period is?
Petroleum, oil and lubricants
122. The largest recipient of private remittances in the world in 2015 is?
India
123. The current exchange policy of India is?
Market determined exchange rate
124. The state which occupies the 1st position in bank depositsas on March 2017 is?
Maharashtra
125. The establishment of which institution marks the beginning of the era of development
financing in India?
IFCI
126. The Five Year Plan with the motto “Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth” is?
Twelfth Five Year Plan
127. The Chairman of Goods and Service Tax Council is
Union Finance Minister
128. An example of a hidden subsidy is seen in
Higher education in Public Universities
129. During the first four decades of planning in India, principal component of revenue of the central
government was from
Indirect taxes
130. Structural adjustment programs deal with
Reducing fiscal imbalances and adjust economy to long term growth

Drug inspector previous question papers

131. Book is to Library as Manuscript is to?
Archives
132. Monkey is to Nut as Sheep is to?
Grass
133. Find the odd one out of the following?
Wary
134. Ram runs faster than Shyam but is not fast as Janaki whilst Jane always beats Ram. Who is the
fastest runner amongst the above?
The above information is not sufficient to find out the correct answer
135. Jagan, Kishan and Madan have two favourite foods each. One of them does not like Rasgulla but
likes Lemon Rice. Kishan likes Parathas but Jagan does not like them. Madan likes Rasgulla.
Kishanand Jagan like Salad. Who likes Lemon rice if it is one of the favourite foods, the other
being Rasgulla, Salad and Parathas?
Jagan
136. Find the next number in the series 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8 …..?
13
137. Find the next number in the series 2, 5, 11, 23, 47?
95
138. If coffee is 4, 16, 7, 7, 6, 6; then tea is?
21,6,2
139. Find the next figure in sequence?
140. Find the missing figure in the sequence of diagrams?
141. If AWAKE is coded as ZVZJD, what is the code for FRIEND?
EQHDMC
142. If DIAMOND is coded as WRZNLMW then GARNET is coded as?
TZIMVG
143. If PROTECT IS CODED as QSPUFDU, then DESTROY is coded as?
EFTUSPZ
144. A clock shows 8 o’clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate
when the clock shows 2 o’clock in the afternoon?
180
145. Rajesh went 15 km to the North from his house. Then he turned west and covered 10 km. Then
he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to the east, he covered 10 km. In which
direction is he from his house?
North
The following table provides education details of 16 year old children for three years. Read the table
carefully and answer the questions below:
Type of education Year and percentage of Children
2015 2016 2017
Full time Intermediate 69.4 69.8 71.2
Out of which
Study in Aided Colleges 28.0 28.2 28.9
Study in Govt Colleges 6.4 6.3 6.2
Study in Private Colleges 35.0 35.3 36.1
Polytechnic Colleges 17.4 16.8 15.5
Not studying in any college 13.2 13.4 13.3
Number of 16 year old (in thousands) 600.4 605.1 609.2
146. In 2016 how many 16 year old children were studying in Polytechnic Colleges (rounded off to
nearest integer)?
a. 101657
147. How many 16 years old more were studying in Private colleges in the year 2017 compared to
year 2016 (rounded off to nearest integer)?
None of the given options is correct
148. In 2015, what is the ratio of students in aided colleges: students in Govt colleges: students in
Private Colleges (rounded off to two decimals)?
4.38 : 1 : 5.47
149. What is the aggregate number of children who were not studying in any college for the three
years together (rounded off to nearest integer)?
241360
150. What is the aggregate number of children who were studying Intermediate in Govt college for
the three years together (rounded off to nearest integer)?
114317

HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET – UPSC APPSC GPAT Exams

HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET

Tod we will discuss HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET in the recent examinations. All the public service commissions and other government private and entrance examination are likely to follow the same pattern of OMR marking answering system for the evaluation. I think this is the best evaluation and one need to be very careful while filling up the form. So, We thought to publish an article on your favorite pharmawiki.in to help all the students and other aspirants to have a safe practice while attempting your examinations.

HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET – UPSC APPSC GPAT Exams

First let us start with a picture of Sample OMR sheet. Have a look at it keenly.

 

Sample OMR Sheet

HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET

INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

Fill boxes in BLUE/BLACK ball point pen only.

INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

Darken the circles by BLUE/BLACK ball point pen only.

Sample OMR Sheet

Do not write anything else on this OMR sheet.

Darken the circles only like this.

UPSC INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

Roll Number

EXAMPLE:
IF YOUR ROLL NO IS “06393”
YOU MUST DARKEN AS SHOWN BELOW

hall ticket INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

SET CODE IS “D”

 

IF YOUR QUESTION SET CODE IS “D”
YOU MUST DARKEN AS SHOWN BELOW

 

entrance exam INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

DATE OF BIRTH

IF YOUR DATE OF BIRTH IS 06/05/1997
YOU MUST DARKEN AS SHOWN BELOW

 

This is another important section for you to concentrate and do the work. You need to fill the bubble with right date of birth if not you may be out as it can be a reason for your disqualification in the examination you are giving right now for your better  career prospects. So be careful while filling your entire OMR sheet.

Appsc INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

IMPORTANT POINTS :
1. “SET CODE” -AS MENTIONED IN THE QUESTION PAPER.
2. 5 (FIVE) DIGIT WRITTEN ROLL NUMBER -AS MENTIONED IN PERFORMANCE -CUM-IDENTITY CARD
3. DATE OF BIRTH – As mentioned in the application form

I hope our article “HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET – UPSC APPSC GPAT Exams” helped you to a small extent before you take up any offline competitive exams. This is a small guide to the instructions for filling the omr sheet without any mistake as our exams are very important to us. All the best my friends and I wish you all the very best for all your future endeavors. May God Bless.

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Question & Answers – DI Exam Practice Paper

DRUG INSPECTOR PRACTICE QUESTION & ANSWERS – DI EXAM PRACTICE PAPER

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Question & Answers – DI Exam Practice Paper is here for you to check out how well is your preparation going on. This is the smart way to learn.

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Questions

1. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease

17. The Latin term for ointment is
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem

18. The Latin term for “When required” is
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim

19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline

20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is

1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation

21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos

22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium

23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension

24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse

25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin

26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia

27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil

28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ?
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen

29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent

30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis

42. The word posology is derived from Greek word “posos” which means
1. “How much” 2. Quantity
3. Amount 4. How long
You are looking for the Drug Inspector Exam Question Paper, i am giving here:

Of the following, who is elected 5.
unopposed in the recent election to
Rajya Sabha
(1) Mayawati
(2) Vilasa Rao Deshmukh
– (3) Rajiv Shukla
( 4) All the above

1. Senna is
1. Irritant laxative 2. Osmotic laxative
3. Bulk laxative 4. Emollient laxative

2. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare

6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ?
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Paper 2018

8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate

9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called

1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte

10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella

11. P wave of ECG is the result of

1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in

1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock

13. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea

14. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ?
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property

15. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ?
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine

16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease

17. The Latin term for ointment is
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem

18. The Latin term for “When required” is
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim

19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline

20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is

1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation

21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos

22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium

23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension

24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse

25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin

26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia

27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil

28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ?
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen

29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent

30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis

31. In the extemporaneous preparation of eye drops the final clarification done by passing
through

1. Sintered glass filters
2. Gooch crucible
3. Whatman filter paper
4. Micro-porous plastic membrane

32. One of the advantages of IR heat sterilization of syringes is
1. Determination of internal temperature to assess the efficiency of sterilization is simple
2. More efficient than autoclaving
3. Unaffected by thermal resistance by static surface air films
4. Fast sterilization

33. International Pharmacopoeia is published by
1. WHO
2. International Pharmaceutical Federation
3. United Nations
4. US food and drug administration

34. In the case of sterilization by dry heat the microbes are killed by
1. Oxidation 2. Dehydration
3. Decomposition 4. Precipitation

35. Communicable disease caused by Rickettsiae is
1. Scrub typhus 2. Chancroid
3. Mumps 4. Influenza

36. One of the first aid in poisoning is by administering
1. Universal antidote
2. Table spoonful of mustered
3. Egg white
4. All the above

37. In hemolytic jaundice the following are true EXCEPT
1. Unconjugated bilirubin level increases
2. Anemia is common
3. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases
4. Liver function test normal

38. The mechanism of action of penicillin is
1. By inhibition of protein synthesis
2. By interference with ribosome function
3. By antimetabolite action
4. By interference with cell wall synthesis

39. Cotrimoxazole is more effective than individual administration of sulphame-thoxazole or
trimethoprim since
1. Both set sequentially in nucleotide synthesis
2. Sulphamethoxazole is antimetabolite and trimethoprin interfere with cell wall synthesis
3. Both binds to enzyme required for DNA replication
4. Sulphamethoxazole interfere with folic acid synthesis and trimethoprin interfere with cell
wall synthesis

40. Which of the following is fluoroquinolone derivative ?
1. Nitrofurantoin 2. Lomifloxacin
3. Prontocil 4. Penicillin

Who is the winner of the prestigious
ABEL PRIZE of the Norwegian
Academy of Sciences and Letters for
2012?
(1) Endre Szemeredi
(2) Paul Erdos
(3) M. Gelfand
( 4) Niel Henrik

3 percent of votes polled?
(1) RLD
(2) BSP
(3) Congress
(4) BJP

GS/500
20th New Delhi World Book Fair was in
augurated by
(1) Kapil Sibal
(2) Manmohan Singh
(3) Karan Singh
(4) Pratibha Patil

Some questions are given below :
1. All of the following ate psychotropic substances, except:
1. Amobarbital 2. Meprobamate
3. Barbital 4. All of the above

2. As per schedule P of Drugs and Cosmetics
Act, the Diphtheria toxoid has expiry period
of :
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 2 years 4. 5 years

3. Chloramphenicol comes under schedule :
1. G 2. H
3. W 4. P

4. Example of Narcotic drug is :
1. Coca 2. Opium
3. Charas 4. Doxapram

5. Ergot and its preparation belongs to schedule :
1. P 2. Q
3. C1 4. L

6. Schedule X drug is :
1. Amphetamine 2. Cyclobarbital
3. Glutethimide 4. All of the above

7. Drug Inspector is appointed under section :
1. 19 2. 42
3. 21 4. 30

8. Schedule M and Y were introduced in Drugs
and Cosmetics Act in :
1. 1976 2. 1982
3. 1988 4. 1980

9. Example of Schedule G drug is :
1. Tetracycline 2. Ampicillin
3. Ibuprofen 4. Tolbutamide

10. Example of Schedule X drug is :
1. Diazepam 2. Emetine
3. Quinidine 4. Ciprofloxacin

11. Opium has been under legislative control
since :
1. 1820 2. 1857
3. 1925 4. 1949

12. Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in schedule :
1. S 2 R
3. Q 4. T

13. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act has been divided
into …… parts
1. 15 2. 16
3. 18 4. 24

14. The Central Drugs Laboratory is established
in :
1. Calcutta 2. Lucknow
3. Mumbai 4. Kasauli

15. The members of the D.T.A.B. hold the office
for :
1. 1 year 2. 3 years
3. 5 years 4. 7 years

1. Senna is
1. Irritant laxative 2. Osmotic laxative
3. Bulk laxative 4. Emollient laxative

2. Long term use of cemetidine may cause 2
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis 2
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria
4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is 4
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above
5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means 3
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare
6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ? 1
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient
7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by 1
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium
8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is 3
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate
9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called
1
1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte
10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify 1
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella
11. P wave of ECG is the result of
1
1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization
12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in
2
1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock
13. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of 3
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea
14. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ? 2
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property
15. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ? 4
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine
16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called 1
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease
17. The Latin term for ointment is 1
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem
18. The Latin term for “When required” is 1
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim
19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline
20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is
2
1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation
21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by 1
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos
22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by 4
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium
23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following 1
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension
24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse
25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are 1
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin
26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces 3
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia
27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ? 3
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil
28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ? 1
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen
29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent
30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is 1
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis
31. In the extemporaneous preparation of eye drops the final clarification done by passing
through
1
1. Sintered glass filters
2. Gooch crucible
3. Whatman filter paper
4. Micro-porous plastic membrane
32. One of the advantages of IR heat sterilization of syringes is 3
1. Determination of internal temperature to assess the efficiency of sterilization is simple
2. More efficient than autoclaving
3. Unaffected by thermal resistance by static surface air films
4. Fast sterilization
33. International Pharmacopoeia is published by 1
1. WHO
2. International Pharmaceutical Federation
3. United Nations
4. US food and drug administration
34. In the case of sterilization by dry heat the microbes are killed by 2
1. Oxidation 2. Dehydration
3. Decomposition 4. Precipitation
35. Communicable disease caused by Rickettsiae is 4
1. Scrub typhus 2. Chancroid
3. Mumps 4. Influenza
36. One of the first aid in poisoning is by administering 1
1. Universal antidote
2. Table spoonful of mustered
3. Egg white
4. All the above
37. In hemolytic jaundice the following are true EXCEPT 4
1. Unconjugated bilirubin level increases
2. Anemia is common
3. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases
4. Liver function test normal
38. The mechanism of action of penicillin is 1
1. By inhibition of protein synthesis
2. By interference with ribosome function
3. By antimetabolite action
4. By interference with cell wall synthesis
39. Cotrimoxazole is more effective than individual administration of sulphame-thoxazole or
trimethoprim since 2
1. Both set sequentially in nucleotide synthesis
2. Sulphamethoxazole is antimetabolite and trimethoprin interfere with cell wall synthesis
3. Both binds to enzyme required for DNA replication
4. Sulphamethoxazole interfere with folic acid synthesis and trimethoprin interfere with cell
wall synthesis
40. Which of the following is fluoroquinolone derivative ? 2
1. Nitrofurantoin 2. Lomifloxacin
3. Prontocil 4. Penicillin G
41. Number of mole of ATPs produced when on mole of glucose is completely oxidized is
1. 38 2. 8 1
3. 6 4. 24
42. The word posology is derived from Greek word “posos” which means 1
1. “How much” 2. Quantity
3. Amount 4. How long
43. The dose for children can be calculated on the basis of body weight by 1
1. Young’s rule or Dilling’s rule
2. Young’s rule or Catzel rule
3. Dilling’s rule or Catzel rule
4. Catzel rule or Young’s rule
44. The metabolic fate of pyruate in the anaerobic condition is formation of
1. ATP 2. Acetyl Co-A 3
3. Lactate 4. Citric Acid
45. The samples taken from drug store by Drug Inspector for analysis shall be divided into
1. 3 2. 4 2
3. 5 4. 2
46. More scientific way of calculating paediatric dose is based on 1
1. Age 2. Body weight
3. Body surface area 4. Body height
47. The dose for a twelve year old child in terms of adult dose is 1
1. 20% 2. 12%
3. 75% 4. 50%
48. In hospitals Infra Red Radiation heat sterilization in high vacuum can be used for
sterilization of 4
1. Extemporaneous ophthalmic preparation
2. Extemporaneous ophthalmic Large Volume parenterals
3. Large instruments used in Operation Theatre
4. Rubber Cloves
49. The small knots in cotton fibre caused by uneven growth or formed during processing is
called 1
1. Neps 2. Staple
3. Card 4. Scales
50. Adsorbent cotton wool is used for 3
1. Absorbing wound exudate
2. Retaining dressing in toes
3. Skin grafting
4. Protecting Dressing
51. Which of the following is ex-officio member of Drug Technical advisory Board ? 4
1. President of Indian Medical Association
2. President of Indian Pharmaceutical Association
3. President of Indian Council of Medical Research
4. President of Medical Council of India
52. Number of schedules to Drugs and cosmetics act 1940 is 4
1. 12 2. 2
3. 40 4. 32

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Papers

53. The dressing used for burn injury is
1. Rayon 2. Cellulose wading
3. Capsicum cotton wool 4. Paraffin gauze dressing
54. In the case of sterilization by moist heat the microbes are killed by 1
1. Oxidation 2. Reduction
3. Decomposition 4. Coagulation of protein
55. Saturated steam is better heating agent than air for sterilization because it has 1
1. High latent heat
2. High pressure
3. High sensible heat
4. Low coefficient of expansion
56. Which schedule to Drugs and Cosmetics Rule provides the list of disease which a drug
may not purport to prevent or cure or make claims to prevent or cure ? 2
1. Schedule C 2. Schedule J
3. Schedule M 4. Schedule Y
57. Every record, register, or other documents seized by Drug Inspector under clause cc or cca
of Section 22 of drugs and cosmetics act 1940 shall be returned to the person within
1. 10 days 2. 20 days
3. 25 days 4. 30 days
58. Valuable test for confirmation that the steam has displaced all the air from a porous
load in a high vacuum autoclave is 3
1. Bowie – Dick Test 2. Klintex Paper Test
3. Browne’s Tube Test 4. Hour Glass Test
59. The label of package containing the drugs coming under the purview of Narcotic Drugs
and Psychotropic Substance act 1985 should 4
1. Have the symbol NRx in Red in the left top corner
2. Have warming: “Poison”
4. Have caution : it is dangerous to take the medicine except under supervision of
Registered Medical Practitioner
4. All the above
60. First step in glycolysis is 2
1. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
2. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
3. Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyrite
4. Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6 diphosphate
61. Chemical incompatibility is caused due to any of the following EXCEPT : 2
1. pH change 2. Double decomposition
3. Complex formation 4. Dissociation
62. What is the preferred pH to dispense a weakly acidic drug with pKa of 7.5 as solution ? 1
1. Less than 5 2. Less than 3
3. 7.5 4. 9
63. Oxytetracycline is produced by 1
1. Streptomyces rimous
2. Streptomyces grises
3. Streptomyces Venezuela
4. Streptomyces garyphalous
64. The precursor used in the manufacture of benzyl penicillin is 2
1. Phenyl acetic acid
2. 6-aminopenicillonic acid
3. Phenoxy acetic acid
4. 2-6, dimethoxyphenylacetic acid
65. Fainting is due to pooling of blood in lower extremities in the following 2
1. Collar syncope 2. Orthostatic syncope
3. Carotid sinus syncope 4. Vaso-vagal syncope
66. Lipase is not present in one of the following secretion 2
1. Saliva 2. Gastric juice
3. Pancreatic juice 4. Intestinal juice
67. Which of the following ins the selective COX – 2 inhibitor ? 4
1. Nimesulide 2. Mefenamic acid
3. Naproxene 4. Diclofenac
68. Which of the following NSAID is para aminophenol derivative ? 2
1. Indomethacin 2. Diclofenac
3. Paracetamol 4. Ketoprofen
69. Conversion of glycogen to glucose is known as 3
1. Glycogenesis 2. Glycolysis
3. Glycogenolysis 4. Gluconeogenesis
70. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate or lactate is called 1
1. Embden-Mayerhof pathway
2. Pentose phosphate pathway
3. Uronic acid pathway
4. Glycerophosphate shuttle
71. Opthalmic preparation may contain the medicaments as a suspension provided the
size of the 90% of the particle is less than 2
1. 1 micron 2. 5 micron
3. 7 micron 4. 10 micron

DRUG INSPECTOR Exam Practice Paper

72. The most important property of ophthalmic preparation which causes pain and irritation
is 1
1. Hypertonic solution 2. Acidic pH
3. High viscosity 4. Hypotonic solution
73. Dispensing of alkaline bicarbonate and soluble magnesium salt together will produce 4
1. Double decomposition
2. Complexation
3. Therapeutic incompatibility
4. Physical incompatibility
74. Current Pharmacopoeia of India was published in 4
1. 1955 2. 1966
3. 1986 4. 1996
75. Which of the following is NOT sexually transmitted disease ? 4
1. Gonorrhoea 2. Chancroid
3. Granuloma inguinale 4. Kala azar
76. Malaria is caused by 2
1. Protozoa 2. Bacteria
3. Fungi 4. Virus
77. Intrinsic factor is secreted by 2
1. S cells 2. K cells
3. Parietal cells 4. Duodenal mucosa
78. Pepsinogen is activated by 2
1. Enterokinase 2. HCl
3. Trypsin 4. Cl–
79. Which of the following is long acting barbiturate ? 4
1. Amylobarbitone 2. Secobarbitone
3. Thiopentone 4. Phenobarbitone
80. Which of the following is opioid antagonist ? 3
1. Buprenorphine 2. Meptazinol
3. Nalorphine 4. Nalbuphine
81. Choose the correct statement : 3
1. Buffering capacity of eye drops should be low
2. Buffering capacity of eye drops should be high
3. Eye drops should be buffered at the pH of lachrymal secretion
4. Buffer should not be used in eye drops
82. British standard tests for ophthalmic containers include all the following tests EXCEPT 1
1. Resistance for autoclaving
2. Light resistance
3. Closure efficiency
4. Gas permeability
83. Pharmacopoeia gives all the following information EXCEPT 4
1. Dose 2. Solubility
3. Therapeutic category 4. Manufacturing method
84. Pharmacopoeia is a book 4
1. Describing preparation of formulations
2. Describing dispensing techniques
3. Of standards published by respective government agency
4. All the above
85. Filariasis is caused by 1
1. Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Strongyloides stercoralis
3. Dracunculus medinensis
4. Schistosoma mansonia
86. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission of AIDS ? 3
1. Sexual contact
2. Transfusion of infected blood
3. Contact with infected towels and clothing
4. From infected mother to foetus
87. Oxyntic cells secrete one of the following : 2
1. Pepsinogen 2. HCl
3. Bicarbonate 4. Gastrin
88. Mass peristalsis is seen in 2
1. Small intestine 2. Stomach
3. Large intestine 4. Esophagus
89. Who is known as father of modern chemo-therapy ? 1
1. Paul Ehrlich 2. Louis Pasteur
3. Alexander Fleming 4. Domagle
90. The effect of sulpha drug is antagonized by 1
1. PABA 2. Folic acid
3. Sulphanilic acid 4. Thiamin
91. Hardening is one of the steps in the preparation of catguts. It is done by soaking the ribbon
obtained from the intestine in
1. Potassium Permanganate solution
2. Potassium sulphate solution
3. Chromium salt solution
4. Vanadium sulphate solution
92. Material used in the non-absorbable suture is 1
1. Silk 2. Linen
3. Metals and alloys 4. All the above
93. Children from slum area develop immunity to a variety of disease more quickly than those
children from affluent area due to 2
1. Frequent clinical infection
2. Frequent subclinical infection
3. Inadequate artificial immunization schedule
4. Acquired passive immunization
94. New born babies show high resistance to Chicken pox due to 1
1. Naturally acquired active immunization
2. Artificially stimulated active immunization
3. Naturally stimulated passive immunization
4. Artificially stimulated passive immunization
95. The following is a major relay station for sensory impulses 4
1. Medulla 2. Pons
3. Cerebellum 4. Thalamus
96. Feeding is regulated by centers in the 3
1. Cerebral cortex 2. Thalamus
3. Hypothalamus 4. Cerebellum
97. Which of the following antacid has laxative action also ? 1
1. Aluminium hydroxide 2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Calcium Carbonate 4. Sodium bicarbonate
98. Omeprazole is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer since it 4
1. Increases the secretion of mucus
2. Is H2
receptor antagonist
3. Is H1
receptor antagonist
4. Is proton pump inhibitor
99. WHO recommended drug regime for the treatment of tuberculoid leprosy is
1. Dapsone 100 mg/day + Rifampicin 600 mg/month (supervised) for 6 months
2. Dapsone 100 mg/day + Clofazimine 50 mg/month (unsupervised) for 12 months
3. Rifampicin 600 mg/month + Clofazimine 300 mg/month (unsupervised) for 12 months
4. Rifampicin 600 mg/month (supervised) + Clofazimine 300 mg/month (unsupervised) for 3
months
100. Which of the following disease is caused by parasitic protozoa ? 1
1. Leishmaniasis 2. Leprosy
3. Syphilis 4. Plague
101. How much theobroma oil is required to prepare ten suppositories containing 300 mg of
bismuth subgallate using one gram suppository mould ? (Displacement value of bismuth
subgallate is 6)
1. 9.5 g 2. 0.5 g
3. 9.5 ml 4. 0.5 ml
102. Turbidity is often produced initially when
alcohol is mixed with water which disappears subsequently. It is due to 3
1. The formation of temporary emulsion
2. Less solubility of alcohol in water
3. The precipitation of impurities
4. Liberation of air dissolved in water
103. Maximum volume blood collected at one attendance from a donor is 2
1. 420 ml 2. 250 ml
3. 100 ml 4. 940 ml
104. The blood from human volunteer is collected
from 2
1. Median cubital vein 2. Jugular vein
3. Pulmonary vein 4. Any of the above
105. The toxins are converted to toxoid by treating with 1
1. Formaldehyde
2. Autoclaving
3. By heating to 80o Celsius
4. All the above
106. Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated living bacteria ? 1
1. BCG 2. Tetanus
3. Poliomyelitis 4. Diphtheria
107. Acetylcholine is not the neurotransmitter in
the following fibers 1
1. Pre-ganglionic parasympathetics fibers
2. Post-ganglionic parasympathetics fibers
3. Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers
4. Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers of sweet glands
108. Lumbar puncture is performed for the
following reasons EXCEPT 2
1. To produce spinal anesthesia
2. To relieve intracranial pressure
3. To introduce drugs into CNS
4. To record the electrical activities of spinal cord
109. Which of the following is anti-emetic ? 2
1. Domperidone 2. Apomorphine
3. Mustard 4. Ipecacuanha
110. Which of the following is irritant purgative ? 3
1. Magnesium sulphate
2. Dioctyl sodium sulphosuccinate
3. Liquid paraffin
4. Castor oil
111. Amodiaquine is active against which phase of the life cycle of malarial parasite ? 3
1. Hepatic phase 2. Asexual parasites
3. Latent tissue phase 4. Gametocytes in mosquito
112. Drug acting against only extra intestinal amoebiasis is 2
1. Quinidochlor 2. Dilaxanide furoate
3. Tetracycline 4. Chloroquine
113. How much 95% alcohol is required to prepare 1000 ml of 60% alcohol ?
1. 631.5 2. 621.6
3. 658.33 4. 641.6
114. A prescription is an order, to supply medicine, from 4
1. Doctor 2. Dentist
3. Veterinary surgeon 4. All the above
115. Blood collected from donor is stored in sealed containers at ? 3
1. –20o Celsius 2. –80o Celsius
3. 4
o
to 6o Celsius 4. 15o
to 20o Celsius
116. In emergency conditions where the whole blood is not available or until matching test
are known the following can be used 2
1. Concentrated human RBC
2. Dried human plasma
3. Human plasma protein fraction
4. Human fibrinogen
117. Venereal disease is contracted by 1
1. Physical contact 2. Hand infection
3. Arthopod vector 4. Droplet infection
118. Rod shaped bacteria are called 2
1. Cocci 2. Bacilli
3. Spirochetes 4. Vibrio
119. Decoction process is used for 4
1. Alcohol soluble and heat stable constituents of plants
2. Water soluble and thermo labile constituents of plants
3. Water insoluble and heat stable constituents of plants
4. Water soluble and heat stables constituents of plants
120. The normal pace maker of the heart is 2
1. Atrio-ventricular node 2. Sino-atrial node
3. Bundle of His 4. Purkinje fibers
121. Which of the following is the primary effect of digitalis in congestive cardiac failure ?
2
1. Decreased heart rate
2. Increased force of contraction of myocardium
3. Decreased venous out put
4. Increased urinary out put
122. Plant extract in the form of plastic mass is known as : 1
1. Pilular extract 2. Liquid extract
3. Fluid extract 4. Powder extract
123. Which of the following is penicillinase resistant penicillin ? 1
1. Benzyl penicillin 2. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
3. Cloxacillin 4. Penicillin G
124. Which of the following is not a macrolide antibiotic ? 1
1. Erythromycin 2. Oleandomycin
3. Spiromycin 4. Gentamicin
125. Choose the correct statement with respect to requirement of paediatric dose 1
1. The dose requirement is directly proportional
to age
2. The dose requirement is directly proportional
to height
3. A child require larger dose per/kg than adult
4. A child require lesser dose per/kg than adult
126. The percentage by volume of alcohol in proof spirit is 3
1. 57.10 2. 42.9
3. 49.28 4. 95
127. The bandage prepared from fabrics with cotton warp and wool weft is
1. Domette bandage 2. Stretch bandage
3. Cambric bandage 4. Cotton stretch bandage
128. Crepe bandage is helpful in all the following conditions EXCEPT 2
1. For giving light support to sprains and strains
2. For correctional purpose
3. As a compression bandage
4. To protect clothing from dressing
129. Bactericides used in sterilization by heating with bactericide are 1
1. Chlorocresol and Phenylmercuric Nitrate
2. Fomaldehyde and Chlorocresol
3. Phenyl mercuric nitrate and Methyl paraben
4. Chlorocresol and Methyl paraben
130. Presence of antibacterial agents in injectables requires that the antibacterial agent
inactivated before sterility testing. One of te methods to inactivation is by dilution with 3
1. Water 2. Normal saline
3. Culture medium 4. (2) or (3)
131. During prolonged starvation the glucose required for brain function is made available
by 3
1. Citric acid cycle 2. Glycogenesis
3. Gluconeogenesis 4. Glycogenesis
132. Increased blood glucose level may be due to 1
1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Hyper activity of thyroid
3. Emotional stress 4. All the above
133. Which of the following cardiovascular drug produce tachycardia ? 3
1. Propranolol 2. Procainamide
3. Quinidine 4. Lignocaine
134. Which of the following is calcium channel blocker ? 2
1. Amlodipin 2. Atenalol
3. Isesorbide dinitrate 4. Minoxidil
135. Cephalosporins are derivative of 1
1. Betalactam 2. Quinoline
3. Fluoroquinolone 4. Carbapenem
136. Which of the following antifungal agent is a polyene derivative ? 2
1. Amphotericin B 2. Clotrimazole
3. Griseofulvin 4. Flucytosine
137. 30 degree under proof spirit means 2
1. 100 volume of the spirit contains 30 volume of proof spirit
2. 100 volume of the spirit contains 70 volume of proof spirit
3. 100 volume of the spirit when diluted give 130 ml of proof spirit
4. 100 volume of the spirit when diluted give 170 ml of proof spirit
138. Intra venous injection of hypotonic solution may cause 4
1. Hemolysis
2. Shrinkage of RBC
3. Crenulation of blood cells
4. All the above

DRUG INSPECTOR PRACTICE QUESTION & ANSWERS – DI EXAM PRACTICE PAPER
139. Catgut is prepared from the intestine of 2
1. Cat 2. Pig
3. Ox 4. Sheep
140. Strings used for tying blood vessels during surgery is called 2
1. Ligature 2. Suture
3. Catgut 4. Fibers
141. Exotoxins are 1
1. Structural elements of bacteria
2. Normally found in Gram negative bacteria
3. Water soluble, high molecular weight protein or enzyme
4. Much less toxic
142. Virulence of bacteria is increased by 2
1. Growing under artificial condition
2. Successive and fairly rapid transfer from one susceptible host to another
3. Growing in an unfavorable condition
4. Growing in unnatural host
143. Which of the following is obtained from animal ? 2
1. Cantharidin 2. Ichthamnol
3. Diatomaceous earth 4. Vincristine
144. Sensory cortex is located in the following lobe of the cerebral cortex 1
1. Frontal lobe 2. Parietal lobe
3. Occipital lobe 4. Temporal lobe
145. Which of the following increases the steady state plasma concentration of digitalis when
co-administered ? 2
1. Aspirin 2. Verapamil
3. Paracetamol 4. Steroids
146. Maceration in which gentle heat is used during the process of extraction is called 2
1. Percolation 2. Infusion
3. Decoction 4. Digestion
147. Use of antibiotic is not justified in the prophylaxis of all the following conditions EXCEPT
3
1. Meningococcal infection in children
2. Endocarditis
3. Infection during catheterization
4. Infection due to climatic change
148. All the following are the reason for the difficulty in the treatment of T.B. EXCEPT 2
1. Occurrence of persister
2. Non availability of effective drug
3. Tubercle bacilli can remain viable and multiply even when ingested by macrophage
4. The cessation and fibrosis tend to block the
blood vessel making penetration of drugs
difficult
149. Which of the following injection is made slightly hypertonic ? 1
1. IV injection for rapid action
2. IM injection for rapid absorption
3. Intracutaneo injection is for rapid absorption
4. Subcutaneous injection for rapid absorption
150. Displacement value of zinc oxide with reference to theobroma oil is 5. That means 2
1. 1 g of zinc oxide replaces 5 g of theobroma oil
2. 5 g of zinc oxide replaces 1 g of theobroma oil
3. 1 ml of zinc oxide replaces 5 ml of theobromaoil
4. 5 ml of zinc oxide replaces 1 ml of theobroma oil

11. Williamson Synthesis is used for the preparation of:
(a) Aldehydes
(b) Alcohols
(c) Ethers
(d) Amides

12. Ketoconazole structure contains :
(a) Imidazole ring
(b) Triazole ring
(c) Tetrazole ring
(d) Thiazole ring

13. Vitamin containing steroidal moiety is:
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin B12

14. Dragendorff’s reagent is employed for the identification of :
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Alkaloids
(c) Flavonoids
(d) Proteins

15. In which one among the following is Pteridine ring system present?
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Thiamine
(c) Pyridoxine
(d) Folic acid

16. Aminophylline is a combination of:
(a) Theophylline and dimethylamine
(b) Caffeine and theophylline
(c) Theophylline and ethylenediamine
(d) Caffeine and ethylenediamine

17. Purine ring system is a fusion of:
(a) Pyridine and imidazole
(b) Pyrimidine and imidazole
(c) Piperidine and pyrazole
(d) Piperidine and imidazole

18. Furosemide contains the following heterocycle:
(a) Furan
(b) Thiophene
(c) Pyrrole
(d) Imidazole

19. Term of every patent in India (under Indian Patent Act) from the date of filing is:
(a) 10 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 24 years

20. Raloxifene is indicated for use in:
(a) Rickets
(b) Hypoparathyroidism
(c) Postmenopausal osteoporosis
(d) Intestinal osteodystrophy

1. Zero order kinetics is seen in all except:
(a) Salicylates
(b) Barbiturates
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Ethanol

2. Which one of the following is not a prodrug?
(a) Chloral hydrate
(b) Diazepam
(c) Enalapril
(d) Oxcarbazepine

3. Which one of the following drugs does not cross the placental barrier?
(a) Morphine
(b) Lithium
(c) Warfarin
(d) Heparin

4. The evidence which indicates that a drug is stored extravascularly is:
(a) Small clearance
(b) Small apparent volume of distribution
(c) Large apparent volume of distribution
(d) Large clearance

5. Which one among the following drugs can be given safely during pregnancy?
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) Primaquine

6. Lignocaine is used in the treatment of :
(a) Atrial Flutter
(b) Atrial Fibrillation
(c) PSVT
(d) Ventricular tachycardia

7. Which one among the following drugs is used in AV block?
(a) Isoprenaline
(b) Propranolol
(c) Dopamine
(d) Disopyramide

8. Mineralocorticoids cause:
(a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Glycogen synthesis
(c) Lipolysis
(d) Sodium reabsorption

9. In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is:
(a) Tungsten lamp
(b) Sodium lamp
(c) Deuterium lamp
(d) None of these

10. The principle of infrared spectra is based upon:
(a) Electronic excitation
(b) Resonance
(c) Dissociation
(d) Molecular vibrations

182 : –: : 210 : 380
(1)-. 342
(2) 272
(3) 240
(4) 156

In a particular code FACE is written as GBDF. In the same code BADE is to be
written as
(1) CBEF
(2) CEBF
(3) CFBE
(4) CBFE

In a patricular code TAP is written as SZO. In the same code FREEZE is to be written as .f~!>O’Y !’
(1) EQDFYG
(2) •ESDFYF
(3) GQFDYF
(4) EQDDYD

In a code MHUSMD is written as LI’ITLE. In the same code NTUD is to be written as
(1) MOVE
(2) MUTE
(3) MITE
(4) MATE

In a particular code AUTHOR is written as AUOTHR. In the same code PUBLIC is to be written as
(1) UBIPLC
(2), UIPBLC
(3) PCUBIL
(4) PBILCU

86, 48, 38, 14, 96, 54, 78, –
(1) 56
(2) 62
(3) 81
(4) 76

Fill the gap in the following with proper number
5,8, 13,21,34,55,
1) 85
(2) 92
(3) 89
(4) 58

A person saves Rs. 100/- after spending”from his income 1/5 on food and 3/5 on clothes. What is total income?
(1) Rs. 20
(2) Rs. 80
(3) Rs. 400
C4Y Rs. 500

Person ate 7 apples in 7 minutes. One person could eat one Apple in how many
minutes
(1) 7
(2) 2
(3) 49
(4) 117

Fill the gaps m the following with pro er numbers
5;6, 12, 10,28,26,62,62,-,-
(1) I 1_32, 126
(2) 132, 185
(3) 123, 126
( 4) 126, 132-

Fill the gap in the following with proper numbers
2, 12,36,80, 150,
1) 252
(2) 264•
(3) 384
(4) 272

6. Lignocaine is used in the treatment of :
(a) Atrial Flutter
(b) Atrial Fibrillation
(c) PSVT
(d) Ventricular tachycardia

7. Which one among the following drugs is used in AV block?
(a) Isoprenaline
(b) Propranolol
(c) Dopamine
(d) Disopyramide

8. Mineralocorticoids cause:
(a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Glycogen synthesis
(c) Lipolysis
(d) Sodium reabsorption

9. In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is:
(a) Tungsten lamp
(b) Sodium lamp
(c) Deuterium lamp
(d) None of these

10. The principle of infrared spectra is based upon:
(a) Electronic excitation
(b) Resonance
(c) Dissociation
(d) Molecular vibrations

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? If You have this in your mind this article is for you. When you want to crack government DI Examination then you must read this post from pharmawiki.in. We will help you to get Drug Inspector job in an easy and smarter way. Even though hard work pays you success these days you need to work smart to punch the door of success.

Every year hundreds of thousands of candidates aim to sit for the exams held by the central and the state Govt. Drug Inspector is one of those posts of government sector that people acquiring background in medicine and pharmacy field have always wanted to go for. Hence, just sitting in exam is not fruitful until one cracks it. So, tight preparation for this exam is very essential.

Basically the Drug Inspector exam is divided into two parts one is written and the other is viva-voce. One has to qualify a written examination and interview along with the physical fitness test to become eligible for appointment. The papers shall comprise of objective type multiple choice based questions.

The Paper I shall contain subject specific questions. The Paper II shall consist of general studies and mental ability questions. The candidates should also prepare for the General Science questions including recent developments in the field of Science & Technology.

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam?
Few tips for the best preparation:

  • Start as early as possible for the preparation. Firstly you have to learn about the syllabus and important topics of the examination. You need proper basic knowledge of the entire subject, hence focus to improve your basics.
  • Make notes for every subject. Prepare pharmacy portion strongly with daily revision. Also keep an eye over the GK & Current affairs. Practice is the key to crack DI exam. Solve more and more MCQ so that it enhances your accuracy. By doing this, you can eliminate the wrong options easily during exam.
  • Go through the question bank papers of DI examination. You should study at least 8 to 10 hours regularly to leave no place unseen.
  • Lastly you have to be stress free and dehydrated, full with energy. Preferably, don’t waste time for a particular question in exam hall.

Role of Drug Inspectors

They are qualified persons working in the manufacturing and distribution sector of drugs. Using their technical and intellectual ability these professionals grade diverse products.

Their prime responsibility is to inspect whether the medicines maintain legal standards of sanitation, limpidness, and grading. They visit various pharmacies, laboratories and drug-manufacturing stores to check the quality of the manufactured products those are sold.

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

All the very best for your preparation time which consequently lead you to the family of government sector  Pharmaceutical Drug Inspector Job vacancy.

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

Drug Inspector exam- Subjects, Syllabus, Books, and Practice Papers are  here in this article. The Government exam of Drug Inspector is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission known as UPSC and also various state PSCs and Staff Selection committees on an annual basis. All the interested candidates those are eligible can register application form after going through the UPSC Drug Inspector Notification released every year. According to the official notification, the application is invited to online mode and candidates can register from December month of the year. The vacancies are available for the appointment of Drug Inspector vacancy in various departments. Additional details about eligibility criteria like qualification, a method of the application procedure, selection process and other required details are also available on the official website. The recruitment process for these Drug Inspector vacancies will be completed by the next year in the month of October. All the qualified candidates who are aspiring to be the Drug Inspector, they can send the application form to exam community with the help of postal services. The application fee can be paid offline or online mode before the deadline.

Aspirants who are seeking for Drug inspector posts should possess the bachelor degree in medicine/ science/degree in Pharmacy with minimum 45% marks in the qualifying exam from any PCI recognized university. All the job seekers who want to work as Drug inspector should have a minimum experience of 18 months in the testing/manufacturing field or be a registered Pharmacist. Candidate should be Indian citizen; minimum age should be 35 years and maximum 50 years as per the government rules & regulation. Relaxation of 5 years is allowed for the reserved category. A category wise or state wise recruitment details are available in the official advertisement.

For the candidate to be aware of the curriculum here we are notifying the subjects, syllabus, books and the practice papers of the Drug Inspector Exam.

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI – Exam Pattern

PaperSubjectMarksDuration
Paper-IPharmacy200 marks2 Hours
Paper-IIGeneral  Studies and Mental Ability50 marks1 Hour

Check here Drug Inspector Exam Solved papers

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Pharmacy Syllabus

 

Human Anatomy & PhysiologyPharmacognosy
Clinical PathologyBiochemistry
Drug Store ManagementPharmaceutical Chemistry
PharmaceuticsHospital & Clinical Pharmacy
PharmacologyPharmaceutical Jurisprudence
AccountancyHealth Education & Community Pharmacy
ToxicologyCommerce

 

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Studies and Mental Ability Syllabus

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Knowledge

 

Indian ConstitutionScience – Inventions & Discoveries
HistoryBudget and Five Year Plans
GeographyImportant Financial & Economic News
EconomyScientific Research
CultureIndia and its neighbouring countries
SportsKnowledge of Current Events
General PoliticsCurrent Affairs – National & International
Economy, Banking, and FinanceCountries & Capitals

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Intelligence

 
Logical ReasoningSyllogism
Blood RelationsInput Output
Coding DecodingAlphanumeric Series
Ranking/Direction/Alphabet TestData Sufficiency
Coded InequalitiesSeating Arrangement
Puzzle Tabulation 

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI English

 

ArticlesPrepositions
TensesVerbs
SynonymsAntonyms
ProverbsConjunctions
Sentences StructurePhrases
Unseen PassageVocabulary

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Tentative books recommended

  • Tutorial Pharmacy by Cooper and Gunn
  • Forensic Pharmacy by C. Kokate (for the drug laws)
  • General Studies Paper I for Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2018
  • Lucents General Knowledge book
  • NCERT Books Set (English Medium) for UPSC Exam (Prelims, Mains), IAS, Civil Services, IFS, IES and other exams

 Check more about Drug Inspector Exam

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Model Test Papers

  • Pharmarocks- The Way of Success DI study material booklet, model papers by Mr. Amar Raval
  • One can follow our website for the latest updates of the mock papers for self-practice.

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

It depends on the state level as well as the central level based on which the general studies including the G.K questions may come. All those candidates who are going to attempt the examination must prepare through the previous year papers, Drug inspector model papers. If anyone is admitted to coaching classes then most of the centres will also make the student practice previous year question paper. The old question papers can be downloaded for free from the internet.

Drug Inspector Exam Practice:

Here are few basics You must know.

  • A break in a capsule is a fracture in the surface of the capsule.
  • A break in a tablet is the separation or dislodging of more than
    10 percent of the tablet.
  • Caking in suspensions is the settling of the solid material in a suspension tothe bottom; the cake does not easily redisperse on shaking.
  • Capping or cavitations of tablets is the separation (or tendency toward separation) of aportion of the upper or lower surface of the tablet.
  • Capsule shapes bulletlike
    conventional
    elliptical (oval)
    oblong
    round
    tapered ends
    various special shapes
  • Capsule types • hard gelatin shell that consists of two pieces:
  • a base containing the medicine and a cap covering
    the base 
  • soft gelatin shell consisting of two flexible pieces formed into a body that is permanently sealed and that may contain a liquid, powder, or semisolid.
  • Chain of custody is the record of individuals who have accessed sample material from the time of collection by an inspector until its ultimate destruction. Both the record and the sample, from its time of collection to the time of its destruction, must be kept safely (under key and lock) and under systematic control.
  • Certificate of Analysis is a document supplied by the manufacturer summarising the physical and analytical data for a particular lot or batch of drug product; is the basis for the product batch or lot being released for sale.
  • Chipping is removal of parts of the tablet, usually at the edges; caused by low friability.
  • Confiscate is to officially take away from a vendor or importer
    and to assume custody of a drug consignment stocked
    on the premises or at the port of entry. The intention
    is to stop the drugs’ distribution to the public. Usually
    done for drugs shown to be counterfeit or of
    substandard quality or associated with unexpected
    illness or death.
    Consignment or “R” number is a consignment tracking reference number assigned
    by the India Revenue Authority. “R” stands for
    “reference.” This number, together with the date,
    distinctively identifies an imported consignment.
  • Detain is to perform the following actions:
    1. Write “DETAIN” in the space provided in the Port of Entry Consignment Inspection Form.
    2. Stop the inspection, complete the Rejection/Detention Form, and inform the India  Revenue Authority/Customs and Excise Department of the rejection or detention.
    3. Give a copy of the form to the India Revenue Authority and the customer.
    4. Refer the importer/consignee to the TFDA.
    5. Upon resolution of detention issues by written instructions from the TFDA, continue the inspection
    from where it stopped.
  • Detention is the retention of a consignment pending resolution of outstanding issues by the TFDA. However, if the issues are not resolved to the satisfaction of the TFDA, detention status, upon written instructions
    from the TFDA, is converted to rejection.
  • Final Classification and Valuation Report is prepared at the exporting country port by COTECNA, which is the third-party contractor to the India Revenue Authority/Customs and Excise Department. The Final  Classification and Valuation
    Report, a Customs and Excise Department document, confirms that the imported goods have the correct
    quality, quantity, and value.
    First expiring, first out is a practice intended to keep the product inventory in good rotation to prevent pharmaceuticals and supplies from expiring on the shelf.
    GPHF Minilab stands for German Pharma Health Fund Minilab, a pharmaceutical product testing kit that has materials for colour reaction, thin-layer chromatography, and disintegration testing of essential drugs.
  • Immediate container is a type of packaging such as a tin or a bottle that is in direct contact with the medicine; also referred to as the “primary container.”
  • Import Certificate is a document issued by the TFDA authorising the importation of approved drugs into the country.
    Liquid or semisolid dosage forms can be a clear liquid, a suspension, or a dry powder for a suspension that must be reconstituted as directed on the manufacturer’s label before use.
  • Percent (%) of remaining shelf life This value is equal to:
    (Expiry date – Date on receipt at port of entry) × 100
    (Expiry date – Manufacturing date)
    Or:
    (Remaining shelf life on arrival) × 100
    (Shelf life of the product)
  • Port of entry name is the name of an authorised place of entry for drug consignments; this name must be filled in on the Port of Entry Consignment Inspection Form.
  • Pro Forma Invoice is presented to the TFDA for approval before a shipment can enter India . A properly endorsed Pro Forma Invoice has two signatures from TFDA officials and the TFDA stamp. The signatures and the stamp indicate that the exporter and consignee are both properly licensed and that the drug manufacturer, product, and dosage forms are in compliance with TFDA requirements. 
  • Quarantine is the retention of a consignment, not allowing its use until further tests are performed to ascertain its quality.
  • Sample Receipt Form is a document drug inspectors must complete for every sample of a batch of drug product collected.
  • Secondary container is a type of packaging that holds a number of immediate or primary containers.
    Splitting of a tablet describes the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet from the main body.
  • Surveillance Programme Document defines which pharmaceutical products are to be
    examined, collected, and tested.
  • Tablet types buccal
    hypodermic
    impregnated (including delayed-action, repeat-action,
    prolonged-action, and sustained-action tablets)
    ophthalmic
    oral
    pellet
    solution
    sublingual
    vaginal

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post – Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post - Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post

Online applications are invited from candidates for Drug Inspector by Food & Drug Administration department for given vacancies. Candidates after submitting their applications through On-Line shall send photocopies of their all academic/required documents regarding their claims along with print out of On-Line application form within 21 days from the last date of submitting the applications on the working day through registered/Speed Post or Personally in the office of the Commission. For this purpose the candidates are advised to download address slip from Commission’s website and to paste it on the envelope containing documents. In Absence of required relevant documents/records, the claims made by the candidates shall not be tenable and relevant documents/records received after due date in the office of the Commission will not be accepted.

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post - Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

Post: Drug Inspector – 91 posts

No. of posts of Drug Inspector Exam:

Unreserved: 38 posts

ST: 30 posts

SC: 11 posts

OBC: 12 posts

Education for Drug Inspector Exam:

A person who is appointed as inspector under the Act shall be a person who has Degree in pharmacy or Pharmaceuticals Sciences or Medicine with specialization in Clinical Pharmacology or Microbiology from a University established in India by law.

Nature of Post for Drug Inspector Exam :

Gazetted/Temporary and 2 years of probation period.

Essential Qualification for Drug Inspector Exam:

A candidate for direct recruitment to the post of Drugs Inspector must possess the following qualifications:- (i) Degree in Pharmacy or Pharmaceutical Sciences or Medicine with specialization in Clinical Pharmacology or Microbiology or equivalent from a recognized University;

(ii) (a) Eighteen Month’s Experience in the manufacture of at least one of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, Or (b) Eighteen Month’s Experience in testing of at least one of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, in a laboratory approved for this purpose by the licensing authority, or (c) Three year’s experience in the inspection of firms manufacturing any of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 during the tenure of their services as Drug Inspector of any State Government or Central Government.

Preferential Qualification- Other things being equal, such candidates shall be given preferences in the matter of direct recruitment- (1) Who has served in the territorial army for minimum period of two years. or (2) Who has obtained a “B” certificate of National cadet corps.

Exam Fee for Drug Inspector Exam:

UR: 450

OBC: 350

SC/ST/handicapped: 300

Age limit for Drug Inspector Exam:

Min 21 years and Max 30 years

Age limit will be flexible for resident of chhattisgarh as per notice from general administration department.

Candidates will be selected by merit through exam.

Any applications to improve any error will not accepted by online or offline medium. Exam results will be declared on basis of answers in OMR answer sheet. Exams results will be declared on basis of category, class, date of birth. No applications will be accepted for eroor improvement before or after exam results.

Age Limit- 21 to 40 years (upper age limit for reserved category candidates shall be relaxable as per rules).

Important directions for Drug Inspector Exam:

Candidates must ensure that they have all certificates of their claim about age, Essential Qualification, experience certificate issued by authorised officer, no objection certificate (If in Govt. service.) and prescribed certificate for reservation and U.P. Domicile certificate from father side for the woman candidates at the time of applying the application form.

Online Application Fee for Drug Inspector Exam:

In the ON-LINE Application process, after completing the procedure of first stage, category wise prescribed fee is to be deposited as per instructions provided in second stage. The prescribed fee for different categories is as under:-

Unreserved (General)   Exam fee ` 80/-+ On-line processing fee 25/-   

Total = 105/-

Other Backward Class Exam fee ` 80/-+ On-line processing fee 25/-    

Total = 105/-

Scheduled Caste-Exam fee ` 40/-  + On-line processing fee 25/-    

Total =  65/-

Scheduled Tribe  Exam fee40/-  + On-line processing fee25/-    

Total =65/-

Handicapped – Exam fee NIL  + On-line processing fee  25/- Total= 25/-

Rules for Drug Inspector Exam: Notification Syllabus PDF

  1. Following candidates are not eligible
  2. Male candidates who have more than one spouse alive and same way female candidates who have married to man whose first spouse is alive. In such matters government has rights to take decisions.
  3. Those who are not fit physically and mentally
  4. Those who married before minimum age for marriage
  5. Any candidates, who have two or more living child and out of which one born after 26 Jan 2001, are not eligible.
  1. It will be responsibility of candidates to check for all eligibility criterias. Means, Candidate should check out for all rules and eligibility before applying for posts. At any point of time during selection, if candidate found uneligible then candidature will be terminated.

Example Questions for DI examination: DRUG INSPECTOR EXAM

1. P wave of ECG is the result of

1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

2. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in

1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock

3. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea

4. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ?
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property

5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare

6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ?
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium

8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate

9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called

1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte

10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella

 

11. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ?
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine

Look out for PREVIOUS DRUG INSPECTOR EXAM QUESTION PAPERS here

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation - Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam: Looking for a pharmacology book? You must consult a good pharma book to have a good knowledge of different drugs and their best use. Here in this post i am going to list some of the best pharma books. Pharmacology involves the study of the actions of drugs and chemicals on cells, tissues and the whole body. It includes finding out how drugs produce beneficial and adverse affects, with the aim of improving the way drugs are tested and to give greater benefit in the treatment of disease. The cellular and chemical abnormalities of disease states are studied in the expectation that molecules may be designed specifically to correct the abnormality. The study of pharmacology requires understanding normal body functions (biochemistry and physiology) and the disturbances that occur (pathology). Pharmacology is the basis of much of the research and development of new drugs. The future of pharmacology is assured, as there remain many diseases for which neither cure nor palliation have been devised – for example, Alzheimer’s disease, neurogenerative diseases, many forms of cancer. Even when a cure or treatment is available, few medicines are perfect and the search for better drugs continues. In addition, other scientists such as  physiologists, biochemists and psychologists often find a knowledge of pharmacology useful as they use drugs to probe and define the biological systems they are studying

Here areTop 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology {Best books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam}

KDT
Rang & Dale
Lippincott wilium Ilustrated Review of Pharmacology
color atlas of Pharmacology

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Pharmacology books GPAT – KD Triphati

KD Triphati is the best book for Pharmacology and if a student has studied it thoroughly, then he doesn’t have to look for any other book for Pharmacology. All the questions asked in the GPAT are of the level of KD Tripathi.

Pharmacology books GPAT – Rang & Dale

Rang and Dale’s Pharmacology has delivered the core basic and clinical science information required by students and healthcare practitioners worldwide. Authors H. P. Rang, J. M. Ritter, R. J. Flower, and G. Henderson have ensured that the 8th Edition of this easy-to-read, comprehensive text continues the tradition of excellence.

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation - Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Pharmacology books GPAT – Lippincott

Lippincott pharmacology pdf is one of the best resource of pharmacology for pharmacy students. This book is read by majority of medical and pharma students and is also advised by ml
];dfteachers and doctors. Because this books helps a lot to make pharmacology easily understandable.

best books for GPAT preparation - Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Drug Inspectors exam – Recommended books

drug inspector list of recommended books

Click Here to register for GPAT online mock tests

drug inspectors
drug inspector list of recommended books

 Drug Inspectors exam covers Two papers.

One is General Knowledge paper and the other is Pharmacy Subjects’ Paper.

We shall discuss the list of highly recommended books for the drug inspectors exam

General Knowledge Paper for Drug Inspectors

The nature of questions asked depends on which board is conducting the exam. If the UPSC for Central Drug Inspectors exam one can expect General knowledge questions relating to the country INDIA as a whole. On the other hand if the exam is conducted by a state Public service commission such as APPSC (Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission) or OPSC (Orissa Public service commission) one can expect General knowledge questions for the relevant states. However at the central level one need not bother much about state specific questions but, in state level exams Questions about India can be asked.

For General studies it is difficult to prescribe any books. However one can follow General Studies books meant for other exams like Group 1 services and previous year question papers. For a basic review of the General Knowledge I would recommend this book

  1. Lucents General Knowledge book
  2. and General knowledge 2016  (very concise and easy to follow)

Pharmacy Subject Paper for Drug Inspectors

This is basically of the B.Pharm level knowledge. Questions are asked more related to pharmaceutical calculations (allegation method, proof spirit, concentration, % w/v) for which a basic Dispensing book like RM Mehta’s Dispensing Pharmacy will do. Moreover one has to know a lot about the Indian Drug Acts and related laws especially Schedules of drug (C, C1, X) are mostly stressed. In the last year the AP drug Inspectors exam had many questions on Latin terms and bandages which can be easily found in Tutorial Pharmacy by Cooper and Gunn

So the list of recommended books for pharmacy paper is

  1. Tutorial Pharmacy by Cooper and Gunn (Most Important)
  2. Forensic Pharmacy by C.Kokate (for the drug laws this is a rare and good book. Lucky if u can get this book)
  3. Text book of Forensic Pharmacy by GP Mohanty (if u cannot get the above book by Kokate)
  4. Pharmaceutics-I: General and Dispensing Pharmacy by Gupta or Dispensing Pharmacy by Cooper and Gunn

All the best for your exam 🙂

And don’t forget to memorize the list of medicines in National Essential medicines

Like this page to read more….

These are the books highly recommended for Drug Inspectors exam

Look out for more Drug inspector Details on below links

Drug Inspector Exam OPSC Orissa Public Service Commission

Drug inspector Books

Drug Inspector Previous year Solved Paper

Drug inspector DI Exam Syllabus

Previous Drug inspector Scores

DI solved paper key with answers

Drug inspector Exam Material

DI Drug inspector old Question paper

Drug inspector Admit card

Drug inspector Admit card free download

Drug inspector Exam Notification Admit card Results

Drug Inspector Model Questions

DRUG INSPECTOR
1. Zero order kinetics is seen in all except:
(a) Salicylates
(b) Barbiturates
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Ethanol

2. Which one of the following is not a prodrug?
(a) Chloral hydrate
(b) Diazepam
(c) Enalapril
(d) Oxcarbazepine

3. Which one of the following drugs does not cross the placental barrier?
(a) Morphine
(b) Lithium
(c) Warfarin
(d) Heparin

4. The evidence which indicates that a drug is stored extravascularly is:
(a) Small clearance
(b) Small apparent volume of distribution
(c) Large apparent volume of distribution
(d) Large clearance

5. Which one among the following drugs can be given safely during pregnancy?
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) Primaquine

 

Hope you understood how will be the questions in DI selection examination. These can be your Drug inspector Interview questions too. So you need to prepare well for the examination Central and state Drug Inspector examination.  Prepare well and crack the Drug inspector examination with flying colors. All the best friends.

List of Essential Medicines | WHO, Indian list

WHO

[tab name=”Essential Medicine”]

WHO
WHO

WHO’s model list of essential medicines (Updated in April 2013, once every two years) has about 350 drugs (368 to be more precise). WHO has two lists one is for adults and the other is for children. Most of the developing countries list of essential medicines is directly adapted from this list. Moreover these drugs are made available at lower costs to developing nations as the need maybe by the WHO.

Download the list here   or view the alphabetical list online here

Similarily in India also we have a list of about 348 medicines that are considered as “National list of essential medicines”. In India the list is compiled by Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO). It is worthwhile to note that most of the drug listed here are Generics (more than 90 %).

Download the list of Indian Essential Medicines here   or view the alphabetical list online here

 

[/tab]

[tab name=”Who list”][table id=10 /][/tab]
[tab name=”NLEM”][table id=11 /][/tab]
[tab name=”Significance”]Government of India has a strict control over the prices of these drugs. No wonder drug prices are very cheap in India.

[table id=7 /]

Wonder why drug prices are cheap in India? It involves a lot of factors, the DPCO, WTO & GATT implications, the Patent Act and even the Previous concept of process patent over product patents for drugs. We shall talk about this in a future article [/tab]
[end_tabset]

References:

1. http://www.who.int/medicines/publications/essentialmedicines/en/

2. http://cdsco.nic.in/

 

Drug Inspector Exam – OPSC

drug inspector exam

Drug Inspector Exam

The Orissa Public Service Commission has issued the notification for recrutiment of Drug Inspector (Class II)

The detailed notification is available here.

Recommended books for drug inspector exam

Drug Inspector Exam highlights

The Drug Inspector Exam conducted by the public service commission of Indian states, is a very important exam for those who are in search of government jobs in Pharmaceutical sector. The post of Drug Inspector is a well respected one and the pay is also very good. The competition for Drug Inspector exam is very high because the number of posts is far less compared to the number of applicants.

Therefore it is very essential to prepare well for qualifying the Drug inspector examination.

You can find material related to the last Drug Inspector exam conducted in Andhra Pradesh by clicking here.

 Drug Inspector exam preparation

It is advised that those who are attempting the Drug Inspector exam, should have a clear idea of the basics taught in B.Pharm syllabus because the level of questions will not be very high. Moreover, as Drug Inspector is a government job, there will be a section on general knowledge where the candidates will be asked questions on current affairs. For this, it is better to prepare the current affairs of politics, sports, awards, prominent appoinments etc in the 6 months prior to the Drug Inspector examination. It is also advised to have a quick look at the current affairs of pharma industry and the who’s who of well known health care institutions in the state as well as the country.

Look out for more Drug inspector Details on below links

Drug Inspector Exam OPSC Orissa Public Service Commission

Drug inspector Books

Drug Inspector Solved Paper

Drug inspector Exam Syllabus

Previous Drug inspector Scores

DI solved paper with answers

Drug inspector Exam Material

DI old Question paper

Drug inspector Admit card

Drug inspector Admit card download

Drug inspector Exam Notification Admit card Results

We wish all our readers good luck for the Drug Inspector exam being conducted by OPSC. Keep watching this space for more information on Drug Inspector Exam of other states.