What is GPAT & How to Prepare – Pharmacy GPAT Exam

What is GPAT & How to Prepare


GPAT stands for Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test which is an all India based entrance exam for admission of pharma graduates in the Masters in pharma programs, conducted by the National Testing Agency or the NTA. It is a national level exam and is conducted once a year. It provides the master programs in around 800 participating colleges and all the All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) affiliated colleges. They provide admission on the basis of these scores. The level of examination is that of a post-graduate. The mode of examinations is online, that is, students are supposed to appear for the computer-based examination on their respective exam centres as provided.  The exam is conducted in English medium only. It is a 3 hours long test with 125 multiple-choice questions. 4 marks are awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.  The registration fees are INR 1600 for all general candidates and INR 800 for SC, ST or OBC candidates. The candidates are supposed to attach a scanned copy of their graduation certificate or result at the time of registration along with the application form. Multiple applications from a single candidate would not be entertained. The registration for GPAT for this session started in November and the examination was held in February this year.

There are few guidelines defined by the National Testing Agency (NTA) regarding the eligibility for candidature to appear for these exams which are mentioned below:

  1. It is mandatory for all the GPAT aspirants to hold a bachelors’ degree in pharmacy or equivalence, from any recognized or affiliated university or institution.
  2. The candidates should also hold the certificate of the result of the bachelor’s degree before the commencement of the academic batches through GPAT.
  3. The applicants must compulsorily hold Indian citizenship.
  4. There are no age restrictions as such.

What is GPAT & How to Prepare

Syllabus for the GPAT examination:

The syllabus for GPAT is the restricted al that one studies in their bachelor’s degree which includes the following:

  1. Physical Chemistry
  2. Physical Pharmacy
  3. Organic Chemistry
  4. Pharmaceutical Chemistry
  5. Pharmaceutics
  6. Pharmacology
  7. Pharmacognosy
  8. Pharmaceutical Analysis
  9. Biochemistry
  10. Biotechnology
  11. Microbiology
  12. Pathophysiology
  13. Biopharmaceutics and pharmacokinetics
  14. Clinical pharmacy and therapeutics
  15. Human anatomy and physiology
  16. Pharmaceutical engineering
  17. Pharmaceutical management
  18. Pharmaceutical jurisprudence
  19. Dispensing and hospital pharmacy


How to prepare for the exam:

  1. Candidates shall be thorough with the syllabus first.
  2. Create a time plan and go accordingly
  3. Stick to your books and notes. Unnecessarily hitting different unknown or new books won’t be of much help. It would rather lead to more confusion.
  4. Prepare handmade notes
  5. Write and learn. Practicing the various chemical equations or reactions would help me better understanding and paced learning.
  6. Do not over stress yourselves. Study for a bounded time and learn as much as you can. Once you complete your goal for the day, Go and treat yourselves.


Government Pharmacist GENERAL STUDIES

GENERAL STUDIES AND MENTAL ABILITY Government Pharmacist GENERAL STUDIES MENTAL ABILITY previous question paper with fully solved answer sheet practice questions for exams

Government Pharmacist GENERAL STUDIES

General Studies and Mental Ability
Q.1. The term ’16 + 1’ Countries refers toChina and Central and Eastern European Countries
Q.2. With which body Indian Army has signed MoU for construction of tunnel in China
and Pakistan borders?
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd.
Q. 3. How many states have started Operation Night Riders?
Q.4. 5 Indians were appointed as members of technical committees of Asian
Gymnastic Union. Who was not one among them?
Dipa Karmakar (Women’s Artistic Gymnastics)
Q. 5. With reference to Hyperloop. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
a. It is a proposed transport system where pods would travel at high speeds in a
near vacuum tube.
b. Maharashtra government has signed an agreement to build a Hyperloop
between Mumbai and Pune.
Select the answer using the code given belowBoth a and b
Q.6. Where was Cyber Exercise on ‘Scenario Building & Response’ held?
New Delhi
Q. 7. Which country has built first artificial Crater on an asteroid?
Q.8. Which one of the following is not correct?
The breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom is called fusion.
Q.9. Which phase change has the same magnitude of energy to the heat of
vaporization for water?
Q. 10. Which planet stays the closest to Earth the longest?
Q. 11. Who discovered D2O
Harold C. Urey
Q. 12. Which one is the sound of Mosquito?
Q.13. With reference to ‘Ozone Layer’, which of the following statements is/ are
a. This layer is found in the stratosphere that is above the Troposphere and
below the Mesosphere.
b. Ozone layer was discovered by French physician Charles Fabry in 1913.
c. Chlorofluorocarbons contribute to depletion of the ozone layer.
All a, b and c
Q.14 . Which is the largest bone in human body?
Q.15. With reference to ‘The Partition of India and Pakistan’, which of the following
statements is/ are correct?
a. Cyril Radcliffe designed the border between the two countries who had no
knowledge about anything except the geographical layout of the country.
b. After the partition, Pakistan got 1/4th of the Indian Army, 2 out of major 6
metropolitan cities and 35% of the Indian Railways lines.
c. Pakistan got Independence on the 14th and India on the 15th of August
because Lord Mountbatten wanted to personally attend both Pakistan’s and
India’s Independence ceremony.
d. The Father of the Nation, Gandhi was not present in Delhi during the partition.
Instead, he was in Calcutta, on August 15, 1947, where he prayed,
confronted rioters and worked with Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy to stop the
communal killing.
a, c and d
Q. 16. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Parliament House’-
a. The shape of the building is circular, which is based on the Ashoka Chakra.
b. The parliament consists of two halls- Lok Sabha (House of People), Rajya
Sabha (the Council of States).
c. The Parliament House is located in New Delhi. The construction of buildings
took six years and the opening ceremony was performed on 18 January 1927.
Which of the above statement is incorrect?
Only b
Q. 17. Which of the following statement is not correct about ‘Election ink’?
It was first used in India 1960 in Mysore Karnataka.
Q. 18. “There shall be a President of India”, it is described in the article52
Q.19. India has a parliamentary system of Government. Which of the following are
the necessary features of Parliamentary government?
a. Majority Party Rule
b. Political Homogeneity
c. Collective Responsibility
d. Prime Minister as the Centre of Power
c, d and a
Q. 20. Who among the following proposed the suggestion for a Constituent
Assembly first in 1935?
M.N. Roy
Q. 21. In which planet’s moon Titan has 100m deep methane lakes?
Q. 22. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Ganga River System?
a. The Ganga river system is the largest in India having a number of perennial
and non-perennial rivers originating in the Himalayas in the north and the
Peninsula in the south, respectively.
b. It rises from the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh in the Uttarkashi district of
Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi.
c. At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; then after, it is known as
the Ganga.
d. Ludhiana is located on the water divide between Indua and Ganga.
a, b and c
Q.23. Read the following statements:
a. The line that separates day and night is called the terminator, also referred to
as the “grey line” and the “twilight zone.”
b. The terminator is a circle with a radius that is approximately that of Earth.
c. The terminator passes through any point on Earth’s surface twice a day, at
sunrise and at sunset
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?
Both a and c
Q.24. Which among the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India in
terms of area?
Q.25. Which among the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency by number
of voters?
Q.26. Arrange the following Indian States in decreasing order of coastlinea. West Bengal
b. Kerala
c. Karnataka
d. Odisha
b, d, c, a
Q. 27. Which important latitude divides India in about two equal parts?
230 30’ North
Q.28. With reference to Andhra Pradesh, which of the following statements is/ are
a. Yeduguri Sandinti Jaganmohan Reddy is the second chief minister of Andhra
Pradesh, post its bifurcation.
b. Andhra Pradesh shares boundaries with Telangana in the north-west,
Chhattisgarh in the north, Odisha in the north-east, Tamil Nadu in the south
and Karnataka in the west.
c. The largest city in Andhra Pradesh is Visakhapatnam.
d. Andhra Pradesh has the third-largest coastline among the states of India.
a, b, and c
Q. 29. Consider the followinga. The Kanaka Durga Temple of Vijayawada is located on hill of Indrakeeladri in
Vijayawada on the banks of Krishna River.
b. The temple was constructed for Goddess Durga by Arjuna.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Both a and b
Q.30. How much is the difference between Indian Standard Time and Greenwich
Mean Time?
+ 5

Q.31. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Sundari : West Bengal
Q.32. The earth is located betweenMars and Venus
Q.33. Ten Degree Channel separatesAndaman from Nicobar Islands
Q.34. With reference to ‘Aspirational Districts’ Program, which of the following
statements is/ are correct?
a. It aims to expeditiously improve the socio-economic status of 117 districts from
across 28 states.
b. The program focusses on 6 main themes.
c. NITI Aayog in partnership with the Government of Andhra Pradesh has
created a dashboard for monitoring the real-time progress of the districts.
Both a and c
Q.35. Which world heritage site comprises of the Alai Darwaza Gate?
Qutub Minar
Q.36. Name the Sanctuary famous for rare Gangetic Dolphins, Magar (Crocodile)
and Gharial (Aligator).
National Chambal Sanctuary
Q.37. Sustainable agriculture meansTo utilize land so that its quality remains intact
Q.38. The primary source of energy in Eco- body isSolar energy
Q.39. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
Q.40. “Ecology is permanent economy” is the slogan of which movement?
Chipko Movement
Q.41. Find the correct alternative to fill in the blank space
Shoe: Leather:: ________
Highway : Asphalt
Q.42. Carbohydrates and fats are referred to as
Body fuels
Q.43. The fatty acids which cannot be synthesized by the body are referred to as_fatty
Q.44. Weight for height is a measure of:
Q.45. Read the following statements:
A) Green leafy vegetables should be cooked in covered pan to retain its color.
B) Green leafy vegetables change color during cooking because of
acidic compound naturally present in them and escaping of gas in
cell interspaces.
Statement A is incorrect and Statement B is correct.
Q.46. Which of the following is not a social welfare service?
Providing health services to the people in general.
Q.47. The treatment of emotional/mental disorders through a relatively long-term
verbal interaction between a client and therapist is named as:
Q.48. The Panchayat Raj system was adopted first by Rajasthan State in India in year:
Q.49. Write down the word which represents the correct meaning of “an extreme
fear of a particular thing or situation especially one that cannot be
reasonably explained:
Q.50. Which one of the following is the smallest state of India?
Q.51. Which of the following Indian states share border with China?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Uttarakhand
D. Assam
A, B and C
Q.52. Which of the following states had its first Governor, a Woman?
Uttar Pradesh
Q.53.Through which of the following Indian States the Tropic of Cancer does not
Q.54. Who among the following was the president of British Indian Association?
Radhakanta Deb
Q.55. Which of the following monuments has not been built by Shah Jahan?
Buland Darwaza, FatehpurSikri
Q.56. Which of the following is/are true about the book “Charaka Samhita”?
A. It is foundational textbook of Astrology.
B. Primarily written in Sanskrit
C. Authored by Ashwaghosha
D. It is fundamental textbook of Ayurveda
B and D
Q.57.The number of languages on the language panel of a currency note is:
Q.58. Who is the author of the book “Who were the Sudras”?
B. R. Ambedkar
Q.59. Who was the founder of “Abhinav Bharat Society”?
V. D. Savarkar
Q.60. Hunter Inquiry Committee Report is associated with
JallianwalaBagh Massacre
Q.61. Which of the following statement/s is/ are correct regarding Champaran
A. An agriculturist RajkumarShukla requested Mahatma Gandhi to come to
Champaran to investigate the state of affairs of the peasants
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad requested Mahatma Gandhi to come to
Champaran to investigate the problems of farmers
C. The peasants of the Champaran were growing indigo under the
D. The Champaran Satyagraha happened in 1916 under the leadership of
Mahatma Gandhi
A, and C
Q.62. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Diarchy Rule:
A. System of single government introduced by the Government of India Act,
B. It was introduced as a constitutional reform by Edwin Samuel Montagu
and Lord Chelmsford.
Only B
Q.63. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order:
A. Home Rule Movement
B. Chauri- Chaura Incident
C. Non-cooperation Movement
D. Quite India Movement
A, C, B, D
Q.64. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the cell wall:
A. Every living thing has cell walls.
B. In plants, the cell wall is composed mainly of strong fires of the polymer
called peptidoglycan.
C. The cell wall is located outside the plasma membrane.
Only C
Q.65. Which of the following statement is correct about Phloem?
A. It conducts food from leaves to rest of the plant.
B. They are dead at maturity.
C. Mostly Phloem cells are located outside the xylem
D. Facilitate gas exchange between the inner parts of leaves.
A and C
Q.66. Deficiency of Vitamin B-12 may cause:
Megaloblastic Anemia
Q.67. Which of the following is correct about Optical Fiber Communication:
A. It works on total internal reflection.
B. The fiber optics transmission involves transmission of signals in the form
of light.
C. Single mode fibers are used to transmit one signal per fiber.
D. Multimode fibers are used to transmit many signals per fiber.
All of above
Q.68. What is the SI Unit of Magnetic Intensity?
Q.69. Consider the correct statement about the Newton Law’s of Motion:
A. If there is no net force acting on an object then the object will
maintain a constant velocity.
B. Force to be equal to the change in momentum.
C. When we shake a tree vigorously its fruits and leaves fall down
because it works on the principle of inertia.
A, B, and C
Q.70. Which of the following is /are correct about the sound wave:
A. Sound waves are longitudinal electrical waves.
B. Frequency range 200 Hz falls under Infrasonic wave
C. Frequencies greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic waves.
D. Speed of Sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solid.
C only
Q.71. Observe the following statements about Doppler’s Effect?
A. If there is a relative motion between source of sound and observer, the
apparent frequency of sound heard by the observer is different from
the actual frequency of sound emitted by the source.
B. When the distance between the source and observer increases, then
apparent frequency increases.
Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.
Q.72.Which of the following is the chemical formula of Vinegar?
Q.73. Who among the following has given the Atomic Theory?
Q.74. Which of the following country has developed “Father of All Bombs”?
Q.75.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Agni –I Missile?
A. It is a high range ballistic missile developed by ISRO.
B. It has specialized navigation system which ensures it reaches the target
with accuracy.
C. 15 meter long Agni –I can carry payload up to 1000 Kg.
B and C Only
Q.76.In which year the word Secular was added to the preamble of the Indian
Q.77.India borrowed the concept of Single Citizenship from which of the following
Q.78. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution discusses about
“Protection of the Interest of Minorities”-
Article 29
Q.79. What is the meaning of Habeas Corpus?
You shall have the body.
Q.80.Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution confer power to the
President of India to grant pardon to any person convicted with death sentence?
Article- 72
Q.81. Indian Politician Lalu Prasad Yadav belongs to which of the Following Political
Q.82.Question should be as followsWhich of the following statements is correct about the Constituent Assembly?
Dr. K. M. Munsi was the Chairman of Order of Business Committee.
Q.83. Which of the following is/are correct about the Fundamental Rights?
A. Fundamental Rights are absolute and not subjected to reasonable
B. All the fundamental Rights are suspended during the operation of a
National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Article 14 and
Neither A nor B
Q.84. Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution was added on the
recommendation of:
Swaran Singh Committee
Q.85. In which of the following Schedule of the Indian Constitution “Anti-Defection
Law” has been discussed?
Tenth Schedule
Q.86. The statement “The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and
the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among
its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavor to bring about
prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks
and of drugs which are injurious to health” has been discussed in which part of the
Indian Constitution?
Part IV
Q.87. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the Fundamental
A. Fundamental Duties are confined to Indian citizens only and do not
extend to foreigners.
B. Like fundamental rights, the fundamental duties are also justiciable.
Only A
Q.88. Choose the correct statement/s about the Indian and the British Parliamentary
A. Head of the State in India is elected.
B. Head of the State in Britain is elected.
C. British system is based on the sovereignty of Parliament.
D. Indian Parliament is not supreme and enjoys limited power.
A, C and D
Q.89. Sarkaria Commission is related with:
Centre-State Relation
Q.90. Which of the following Amendment to the Constitution made Sikkim a fullfledged state of the Indian Union?
36th Amendment
Q.91. Kuchipudi, the village is located in which district of Andhra Pradesh
Krishna and Guntur
Q.92. Sriharikota is situated in which district of Andhra Pradesh?
Q.93. What does foreign capital include?
A. Foreign direct investment
B. Trade credit
C. NRI deposits
D. External commercial borrowings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q.94. Which of the following are implications of deflationary effect on an economy?
A. Unemployment rises and wages decline
B. Demand for goods increases
C. Drop in lending of bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A and C only
Q.95. Monopolistic competition is a:
Market structure where there exist a very large number of sellers selling
differentiated but substitutable products.
Q.96. What does the BIFR (board for industrial and financial reconstruction) deal
Revival of sick industries
Q.97. Who among the following designed the National Flag of India?
Pringali Venkayya
Q.98. The OPEC (Organization of petroleum exporting countries) is an example of
which of the following types of market?
Q.99. Promoting digital payments has been assigned to which of the following:
Ministry of electronics and information technology
Q.100. In which year the Environment Protection Act was enacted?
Q.101. In which of the following river the KumbhMela of Nashik is celebrated?
Q.102. Who among the following world leader is the recipient of prestigious Seoul
Peace Prize-2018 for contributing international cooperation and fostering global
economic growth?
Narendra Modi
Q.103. Which among the following books was written by Bhogaraju Pattabhi
The History of Indian National Congress.
Q.104. Veer Pariwar Mobile App is associated with which of the following force
Q.105. Which of the following statement is correct about the Programme “MERA
It is a Programme in which Agri-Scientists will go the village to provide
farmers with required information, knowledge and advisories.
Q.106. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the “Champion of
the Earth”?
A. It is the highest award of the United Nation Environment.
B. It is the highest award of the United Nation Human Settlements
C. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi is also the one of the recipients of
the award of the Champion of the Earth.
D. Champion of the Earth was introduced by UN in 2000.
A and C
Q.107. In which of the following Assembly, World Health Organisation has adopted
India’s Digital Health Initiative as its first resolution on digital health?
71st World health Assembly.
Q.108. Which of the following country has created the first direct route to transport
gas from one of the world’s largest fields to Europe bypassing Russia?
Q.109. What was the theme for the World Radio Day 2019?
Dialogue, Tolerance and Peace
Q.110. On which of the following dates Andhra Pradesh Reorganization bill was
assented by the President of India.
1st March 2014
Q.111. Who among the following Indians is the recipient of the Carnot Prize for the
contribution to the energy policy?
Piyush Goyal
Q.112. Which of the following statement is/are correct about “Khelo India Youth
Games (KIYG)”?
A. The programme was launch in 2018.
B. The Khelo India Programme has been introduced to revive the sports
culture in metro cities.
C. The second events for the KIYG was held in Bangalore.
D. The First event for the KIYG was held in Pune.
Only A
Q.113. The online campaign “Web- Wonder Women” is related with:
The women, who have been driving positive agenda of social change via
social media.
Q.114. Who among the following was the President of World Bank before David
Jim Yong Kim
Q.115. Which of the following amendment to the constitution facilitated the
reservation for the economically weaker sections?
124th Constitution Amendment Bill
Q.116. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Electronic Voting
Machine (EVM)?
A. Gujarat is the first state in India to use EVM in the state assembly elections.
B. EVMs have been used for the first time at the pan India level in 2009
General Elections.
C. VVPATs, a paper slip is generated bearing name and symbol of the
candidate along with recording of vote for the first time has been used in
2019 Lok Sabha elections.
D. EVMs machines run on a 6-volt alkaline battery.
C and D
Q.117. Which of the following statement/s is are correct about the India-Central Asia
A. The republic of Uzbekistan organized the first India-Central Asia Dialogue.
B. The Foreign Minister of Turkmenistan participated in the dialogue as the
special invitee.
C. The next India-Central Asia Dialogue 2020 will be hosted by India.
D. The dialogue was also participated by the External Affair Ministers of
Afghanistan, Kyrgyz Republic, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan and
A,C and D
Q.118. The campaign of “Sabki Yojana, SabkaVikas’ is related with:
Gram Panchayats
Q.119. Which of the following statement/s is /are correct about the Aisa – Europe
A. The 12th Asia – Europe Meeting was held in Brussels.
B. The First summit was held in Singapore.
Only A
Q.120. The cost price of an article is X. It is marked up by 150%. It is sold at Rs. 600
after giving 40% discount. What is X (in Rs.)?
Rs. 400
Q.121. Which among the following is premier financial institution for agricultural
Q.122. Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First car
runs for 25km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns left and then
runs for another25 km and then takes the direction back to reach the main road. In
the meantime, due to Minor break down the other car has run only 35 km along the
main road. What would bethe distance between two cars at this point?
65 km
Q.123. When (X3
-PX-Q) is divided by (X2
-2X-3), the reminder is (X – 6). The values of
P and Q are respectively
Q.124. A train 100 meters long takes 6 seconds to cross a man walking at 5 kmph in a
direction opposite to that of the train. Find the speed of the train.
Q.125. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 min. and 32 min. respectively. If both
the pipes are opened simultaneously, after how much time B should be closed so
that the tank is full in 18 minutes?
Q.126. A Truck factory manufacturing at a steady rate produces 20 trucks in 4 days.
How manyTrucks could 3 such factories produce in 6 days, if they were working at
the same rate?
Q.127. If 3(x-Y) =27 and 3(X+Y) = 243, then X is equal to:
Q.128. The radius of the cylinder is half its height and the area of inner part is 616 sq.
cms. Approximately how many liters of milk can it contain?
Q.129. When 233is divided by 10, the reminder will be?
Q.130. Unit’s place digit in 962×357×133 is:
Q.131. Match the following:
Dam State
i. Bhakra (A) Himachal Pradesh
ii. NagarjunaSagar (B) Haryana
iii. Hirakud (C) Andhra Pradesh
iv. Kaushalya (D) Odisha
Select the following codes given below:

i iv ii iii
Q.132. The length of a line was measured during survey of an APSRTC site with a 20
metre chain. The length of the line was found to be 250 metres. What is the true
length of the line if the chain was 10 cm too long?
251.25 metres
Q.133.The length of a survey line measured with a 20 m chain was found to be 475
m. The true length of the line was known to be 476.20 m. What is the error in the
0.05 metres
Q.134. Chord scales are used to ________
Measure and set out angles
Q.135. Zero circle is a term pertaining to
Q.136. Any surface parallel to the mean spherical surface of the earth is a
Level Surface
Q.137.Which out of the following is NOT a levellng instrument?
Q.138. One of the following is a parameter in estimation of Ease of Doing Business :
Single Window System
Q.139. Land reform for recording the names of share croppers :
Operation Barga
Q. 140. Indexation benefits on Capital Gains are adjusted by means of a
Cost Inflation Index
Q.141. At the height of economic growth , if unemployment of labour increases , it is
called :
Jobless growth
Q.142. One of the following is Crypto currency :
Q.143. Paritala in Krishna District is known for
Q.144. What is Bombay High Field known for ?
Oil deposits
Q.145. What divides Kathiawar Peninsula from South-Eastern part of Gujarat ?
Gulf of Khambhat
Direction (Q. Nos. 146 – 150): In each of the following questions, four words have
been given out of which three are alike in a certain way and one is different. Choose
out the odd one.
Question Number: 146
Question Number: 147
South – west
Question Number: 148
Question Number: 149
Question Number: 150

AP Grama Sachivalayam category-1 Model Paper 2020 Telugu Q&A Exam

AP Grama Sachivalayam category-1 Model Paper 2020 Telugu Marks Exam

GENERAL STUDIES AND MENTAL ABILITY  AP Grama Sachivalayam category-1 Model Paper 2020 Telugu 150 Question and Answers

AP Grama Sachivalayam category-1 Model Paper 2020 Telugu Marks Exam

1. Which Indian city hosted the 106th Indian Congress?
2. Read the following statements carefully and choose the right answer by
using the codes given below:
I. Congress Socialist Party was founded in 1934 under the leadership of
Acharya NarendraDev and Jai Prakash Narayan.
II. In February 1927, Motilal Nehru, on behalf of National Congress, attended
the Congress of Oppressed Nationalities at Brussels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only I
3. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R.Ambedkar as ‘The Heart
and Soul of the Constitution‟?
Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?
Preamble to the Constitution
5. In Eleventh Five year plan of India, the achievement of agricultural growth
rate was around:
6. The Central Statistical Unit(CSU) which was converted into Central Statistical
Organization(CSO) in the year:
7. As per population census-2001, the rural sex ratio in India was around:
8. Which of the following three R‟s are regarded as environment friendly?
Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
9. Which among the following countries announced to impose „Carbon Tax‟ for
2019 to cut its greenhouse gas emission-?
10. Who was sworn in as the Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court on 1st
January 2019.
Justice Thottathil Bhaskaran Nair Radhakrishnan
11. Which document among the following is known as „Magna Carta of
Education‟ in India?
Wood‟s Dispatch of 1954
12. The Third edition of Raisina Dialogue in New Delhi was inaugurated by the
Prime Minister of :
13. Which country has been ranked as the most peaceful country in the Global
Peace Index released by Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) in 2018.
14. United Nations Human Rights Council(UNHRC) has 47 UN member states with
specific number of seats allotted for each five regions of the globe. How many
seats are allotted for Asia-Pacific States.
15. United Nation observed the first official Braille Day on
4th January
16. Where is the Headquarters of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
Brussels, Belgium
17. Earth Day is celebrated every year on
22nd April
18. Which Spacecraft is the first to land on the far side of the moon?
Chang’e 4
19. Which of the following movies has been selected as India‟s official entry to
the Oscar 2019 (91st Academy Awards) under Foreign Language category
Village Rockstars
20. What is the rank of India in Global Gender Gap Report2018 released by the
World Economic Forum (WEF) on December 2018.
21. Who is the first women to win a gold medal n the women‟s 400 meter final
race at the IAAF world under-20 AthleticC hampionships held in Finland?
Hima Das
22. The Union Cabinet has approved an ordinance to set up the country‟s first
national sports university in one state recently, identify the state.
23. Who won the men‟s single Wimbledon 2018 Championship title?
Novak Djokovic
24. Who won the 16th National Squash Women‟s Singles title?
Joshna Chinappa
25. Which university has been ranked as world‟s most innovative university by
Reuters news agency in 2018?
Stanford University
26. In which place the G20 Digital Economy Ministerial meeting was held?
Salta, Argentina
27. Name the country for which the Resolution 2428 was adopted by UNSC in
South Sudan
28. What is the rank of India on Happiness level in the World Happiness Report,
29. There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is
tallest. D is a little shorter than B and little taller than A. Who is the shortest?
30. P is fifteenth from the left end in a row of boys and Q is eighteenth from the
right end. If R is tenth from P towards the right end and fourth from Q towards
right end. How many boys are there in the row?
31. Who was the first woman speaker of Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly?
K. Pratibha Bharati
32. In which year Andhra University was established?
33. Insert the missing number in the following series2/3, 4/7, ____, 11/21, 16/31
34. In a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN. How would
DISCLOSE be written in that code?
35. There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E is
below A and B is below E. Which is at the bottom?
36. The booklet Asbab-e-Baghawat-e-Hind (The Causes of the Indian Revolt)? is
written by whom?
Syed Ahmed Khan
37. Who was the first woman to climb mount Everest in the world?
Junko Tabei
38. Name the institute in which the Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC)
is established.
Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Service (INCOIS)
39. India participated in a joint military drill called „Vajra Prahar 2018‟ in Jaipur
on 1st December 2018. Name the country with whom this joint exercise was
United States
40. Name the institute that was awarded the “Outstanding Case Writer award
at the inaugural case collection Managers meet held in Hyderabad on 16th
November 2018.
ICFAI Business School
41. International Labour Organisation‟s conventions 138 and 182 are related to:
Child labour
42. Which article provides the„Right to Education‟ to all children of the age of six
to fourteen years?
Article 21 A
43. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
Right of the minorities to establish and administer educational
44. Andhra Pradesh topped the list of ease of living index in 2018 followed by
Odisha and Madhya Pradesh. This ranking was done under the scheme known
45. The news papers contain one of the following toxic materials
46. Carbon monoxide breathing is harmful for human being because
It competes with oxygen in the blood
47. Undavalli Caves is located in
48. From where was GSAT-1 was launched?
49. An object is thrown with a certain force from South-east to north-west. The
wind exerts an equal force from south –west to north-East. What is the final
direction of the object?
Due North
50. How many times the hands of a clock will be in vertically opposite directions
from 10.00 a.m to 10.00 p.m?
12 times
51. The time by your watch is 10.31 o‟clock. In checking with two friends you find
that their watches give time as 10.25 and 10.34. Assuming that all the three
watches are equally good, what do you think is the probability of correct time?
52. Which part of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 deals with
„Management and Development of Water Resources?
Part IX
53. With reference to Global alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA);
which of the following statement is correct?
Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligation
54. Which section of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act 2014 deals with
representation of the Anglo-Indian community?
Section 18
55. Telugu literature was first influenced by which empire?
Vijayanagara Empire
56. Andhra state was created on linguistic basis from part of Madras Presidency
in which year?
57. What is to the east of Andhra Pradesh?
Bay of Bengal
58. Who was the first Prime Minister from Andhra Pradesh?
P.V. Narasimha Rao
59. World toilet Day s celebrated on
19th November
60. Which of the following agency published the Red data book?
61. Which of these countries is considered to have world‟s first sustainable Biofuel economy?
62. Name the Soviet Union suborbital flight carrying two dogs Dezik and Tsygan.
Robotics spacecraft
63. The 10th BRICS summit Declaration was named as
Johannesburg Declaration
64: Who is the author of the famous book series „Game of Thrones‟?
George R.R Martin
65: The first Rampa Rebellion took place in which of the following years?
66: Gottipati Brahmaiah, a freedom fighter from Andhra Pradesh was popularly
known as:
Leader of Farmers
67. The battle of „Padmanabham‟ between the Britishers and the kings of the
Vijayanagaram was fought on:
10 July 1794
68. In which year the control of the British government in India was transferred
to the British crown?
69. Who among the following was the last Viceroy of British India?
Lord Mountbatten
70. Who among the following put forward the „Theory of Drain of Wealth,‟
which highlighted the exploitation of Indian resources for the benefit of Britain?
Dadabhai Naoroji
71. Which schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages?
72. Which of the following was the capital of Andhra State until 1956?
73. How many States and Union Territories are present in India?
29 States and 7 Union Territories
74. Forests and lakes are best classified as examples of:
Natural Ecosystem
75. The Pasarlapudi blowout near Amalapuram in the East Godavari district of
Andhra Pradesh occurred on which of the following days:
8 January 1995
76. On which river was the Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project
77. According to twelfth five year plan document, development of which of the
following is a general capability enhancer for all agents?
78. During the eleventh Five year plan period (2007-08 to 2011-12), on an
average, private consumption expenditure as percentage of GDP was:
59 percent
79. Which of the following was an essential element of strategy, in Fourth Five
Year Plan of India, aimed at achieving balance on foreign account and goal of
self reliance?
A sustained increase of exports by about 7 percent a year during
the plan period
80. As per Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index-Baseline Report2018, for the construction of SDG India index, NITI Aayog left out which one of
the following SDG?
Sustainable consumption and production
81. Which of following is true in relation to the Economic Statistics Division (ESD)
of the Central Statistical Office (CSO)?
ESD compiles the Index of Industrial Production
82. Which of the following method of measuring GNP is called as Final Product
Expenditure method
83. Smart Cities Mission is a holistic city rejuvenation programme for:
100 Cities in India
84. Which of the following is true in relation to the value of ‘Index of Crop
Diversification’ in agriculture sector?
It ranges between 0 (zero) and 1 (one)
85. The expected share of India‟s services sector exports in global services
exports by the year 2022:
86. In relation to India‟s Balance of Payments, the Current Account Deficit
(CAD) in the second Quarter of 2017-18 was around:
87. According to World Bank‟s Ease of Doing Business Report-2018, India‟s rank
in ease of doing business in 2018 is:
88. The „Monetary Policy Committee’ determines the policy interest rate
required to achieve:
The inflation target
89. Which of the following is a capital market instrument in India?
90. According to Comptroller and Auditor General of India report, which of the
following is true in relation to the composition of total revenue receipts of
Andhra Pradesh in 2015-16 Financial Year?
Own tax revenue of the state accounted for around 45% of total
revenue receipts of the state
91. In the total revenue receipts of Andhra Pradesh for the year 2016-17, The
share of grants- in-aid from government of India, was around:
23.60% approximately
92. What is the amount GOI has directly transferred to state implementing
agencies during the year 2016-17
1033.19 Cores
93. Who was awarded the first ever Philip Kotler Presidential Award by the World
Marketing Summit held in India in the year 2018?
Narendra Modi
94. First state to implement 10% quota for economically weak in an Unreserved
95. Which country is the World’s largest producer of solar energy?
96. Which among the following two new science communication platforms
launched by Union minister for science and technology are?
DD Science and India Science
97. Which research institution has launched a new platform called ‘Samwad
with students’ to engage students in space science activities?
98. Legal protection to industrial designs is given in 2001 under the following
99. The differences between the value of currency and the cost of producing is
called :
100. “ N.T.R. Bharosa” scheme is a
Pension scheme
101.“Aadarana 2 “is a programme launched by A.P. Government for :
B.C Welfare
102. Who is the chairman for APSCHE ?
S.V. Raju
103. “ ChandraKanthi “ is a programme to :
Dristribute LED lamps
104. Name the area wise largest district of Andhra Pradesh
105. In the Indian context what is what is the implication of ratifying „Additional
Protocol‟ with the „International Atomic Energy Agency‟(IAEA)?
The civil nuclear reactor come under the safeguard of IAEA
106. How many times digit 0 appear between 1 and 10000?
107. If in a certain language TRIVANDRUM is coded as 2 5 9 5 3 5 4 7 5 8, how
would MADRAS be coded?
108. Who spelt out sustainable development?
109. Saffron is produced in
110. India‟s highest annual rainfall state is
111. ———– state is known for growing the spices?
112. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme was launched by ————-
Ministry of Women and Child Development
113. Headquarters of Confederation of Indian Industries is located
New Delhi
114. Who wrote the controversial novel the satanic verses?
Salman Rushdie
115. What is the theme of 2018 & 2019 World Diabetes Day?
The family and diabetes
116. The Cannes film festival is held in ———-
117. Who was the first woman to go to space?
Valentina Tereshkova
118. The religious text of Jews is ——————
119. Which was the official mascot of FIFA 2018 World cup?
120. What is the minimum age to become the President of India?
35 years
121. Who was the first person to address United Nations in Hindi?
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
122. Who authored Gitanjali?
Rabindranath Tagore
123. When did the Right to Information Act come into force in
12th October 2005
124. The Nobel Prize was instituted by which country?
125. The world yoga day is celebrated on ————–
21st June
126. When is National technology day celebrated in India?
11th May
127. The Nobel prize 2018 in medicine was given to —————–
Allison and Honjo
128. Who among the following has written Musalamma Maranamu?
CR Reddy
129. Who among the following presidents of India gave assent to
Andhra Pradesh reorganisation bill?
Pranab Mukherjee
130. Who among the following was the CM of in AndhraPradesh at
the time of Jai Andhra Movement (1972)?
PV Narasima Rao
131. Siddhartha Gautam was the founder of ———–
132. Sikh Scriptures are found in
133. ———– was the person who discovered new sea route to India
via coast of South Africa on 20th May 1498.
Vasco De Gama
134. ———— in 1875 founded Arya Samaj in Bombay.
Swami Dayanand Saraswati
135. M.K.Gandhi announced mass civil disobedience movement in
the year —–
136. Sriharikota, the location of Satish Dhawan Space Research
Centre is located in the district
137. Which cloud type produces rainstorms?
138. From the choices below, the best estimate of the age of the Universe is —–
—– years old.
13.8 billion
139. Which chemical salt is used in cloud seeding?
Silver iodide
140. The region between ~ 30° to 35° north and 30° to 35° south latitudes is
characterized by weak winds. This region is called ————
The horse latitudes.
141. What was the theme of the World Environment Day,2018?
Beat plastic pollution
142. Where was the International Conference on Climate Change held in
December 2018?
143. Which lenses are used by people having short-sightedness?
144. Which liquid is used in an aneroid barometer?
145. Where did Mahatma Gandhi started his first Satyagraha in India?
146. When was the Indian Constitution first amended?
147. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
The President
148. Which state is known as the `Granary of India`?
149. The Forest(Conservation)Act was enacted in the year
150. The leading producer of coffee is

100+ General Studies & Mental Ability for DI RRB Pharmacist

100+ General Studies & Mental Ability for DI RRB Pharmacist

Drug Inspector RRB Government Pharmacist General Studies & Mental Ability interpretation question and answers for the study preparation.

previous old question paper with answers solved
Directions: For question number 1 to 4
The following pie diagram shows the monthly expenditure of Rakesh and Sohan. Rakesh earns
Rs. 15,000 per month and Sohan Rs 18,000 per month. Study the diagram and answer the
questions given below:
Q: 01. How much more or less does Sohan spend on children’s education than Rakesh?
Rs. 360 Less
Q: 02. Who spends more on Food and how much more?
Sohan, Rs. 240 more
Q: 03. What is the ratio of the expenditure on children’s education by Rakesh and Sohan?
5: 4
Q: 4. What is the measure of the angle used to represent the expenditure on ‘House’ by Rakesh
in (approximately)?
32% 8%
Children Education
Food etc
Children Education
Food etc
Q.5. Arrange the following in order of decreasing magnetic moments:
Fe2+ Mn2+
Mn2+> Fe2+ > V3+> Cu2+
Q. 6. Which of the following is/are correct about sigma bond?
1) Formed by axial overlapping
2) Weaker
3) Independent existence
4) Free rotation possible
1, 3 and 4
Q. 7. The temperature at which a conductor becomes a super conductor is called:
Transition Temperature
Q. 8. The principal amount which yields a Compound Interest of Rs. 208 in second year at 4% is:
Rs. 5000
Q. 9. A person sold a box of pen at a gain of 15%. Had he bought it for 25% less and sold it for
Rs. 60 less he would have made profit of 32%. The cost price of the box of pen was:
Rs. 375
Q.10. There are 40 students in a hostel. If the number of students increases by 5 and the
expenses of the mess increased by Rs. 45 per day while the average expenditure per head
decreases by Rs. 1 then find the total original expenditure of the mess:
Rs. 720
Q. 11. A and B can complete a work in 5 days. They start working but after 3 days B left the
work. if the work is completed after 3 more days B alone can do the work in:
15 days
Q.12. Production of tea requires
moderately hot and humid climate with frequent rains
Q.13. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90o
in the clockwise direction, then 180o
in the
anticlockwise direction and then another 90o
in the same direction. Which direction is he
facing now?
South East
Q.14. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three
tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities
B and C from A ?
Rs. 13, Rs. 17

100+ General Studies & Mental Ability for DI RRB Pharmacist
Q.15. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut each roll of equal
length into 10 pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in 24
120 rolls
Q.16. Acid rains occur when atmosphere is heavily polluted with:
SO2 and NO2
Q.17. Eutrophication of lakes is caused by
Q.18. Which one of the following is not associated with earthquake?
Q.19. Fresh water achieves its greatest density at :
4 degree C
Q.20. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1cm cubes. What is the percentage increase in the surface area
after such cutting?
Q.21. The surface area of three coterminous faces a cuboid area 6,15,10 sq.cm respectively.
What is the volume of the cuboid?
Q.22. The sum of the ages of a son and his father is 56 years. After four years the age of father
will be three times that of his son. Their present age respectively are:
12 year and 44 years
Q.23. Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of
Sulphur dioxide
Q.24. Deathwhile sleeping in closed room with burning coal furnace is caused by
Directions: Consider the following table and answer question 25.
Number of workers Working hours
Q.25. What percentage worked 40 or more hours?
Q: 26 Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the
List – I List – II
Four spheres Greek words
a. Stone 1. Atmo
b. Air 2. Hydro
c. Water 3. Bio
d. Life 4. Litho
a b c d
4 1 2 3
Q: 27. Which of the following has pH value 7?
Pure water
Q. 28. Which state government given its in- principle approval to bring ‘man- animal conflict’
under listed disasters in the State Disaster Response Fund?
Uttar Pradesh
Q: 29. State bird of Andhra Pradesh is:
Rose-ringed parakeet
Q: 30. Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States with regard to sq.
km of forest area (2017)?
Q: 31. According to Indian Forest Status Report released in February, 2018, how much area of India
is covered by forests and trees?
Q: 32. Which set of data has a mean of 15, a range of 22, a median of 14, and a mode of 14?
Q: 33. How many inches are there in 5 centimeters?
Q: 34. A graph of a cumulative frequency distribution is called:
Q: 35. In the case of classification of data, the class having its upper limit is treated as the lower
limit of its next class is called:
Open ended class
Q: 36. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer codes given below the listsList- I List- II
Rupee Denomination Motif of Bank Note
a. 200 1. Hampi with Chariot
b. 50 2. Mangalyaan
c. 500 3. Sanchi Stupa
d. 2000 4. Red Fort
a b c d
3 1 4 2
Q: 37. Which gas is known as marsh gas?
Q: 38. Who introduced ‘www’ to the world?
Sir Tim Berners-Lee
Q. 39. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer codes given below the listsList- I List- II
Gases in atmosphere Percentage
a. Nitrogen 1. 21
b. Oxygen 2. 78
c. Argon 3. 0.04
d. Carbon dioxide 4. 0.93
a b c d
2 1 4 3
Q: 40. _________ is the fourth state of matter.
Q: 41. Along with whom, Bhagat Singh threw a bomb in Central AssemblyBatukeshwar Dutt
Q: 42. The first railway in India was laid down during the period ofLord Dalhousie
Q: 43. Which river of India passes the Tropic of Cancer twice?
Q: 44. ‘Jarawa’ and ‘Onge’ are tribes found inAndaman and Nicobar
Q: 45. In which state Milam Glacier is located?
Q: 46.What is the minimum age to contest in the Panchayat elections?
21 years
Q: 47. Which statement is not true about India’s National Flag?
a) The ratio of the length and width of the flag is 2: 1
b) It is designed using three colours – saffron (top most), white (middle) and India green
(lower most). The middle band contains navy blue Ashoka Chakra (Wheel of Law) in the
centre with 24 spokes to the wheel.
c) The present form of the national flag was adopted in the meeting of Constituent
Assembly on 22nd of July in 1947.
d) It is also called as ‘Tiranga’, meaning three colours and is based on Swaraj flag, designed
by PingaliVenkayya.
Q: 48. How many Sustainable Development Goals were set by the United Nations General
Assembly in 2015?
17 Goals
Q: 49. Which is the India’s First Solar- Powered Railway station?
Guwahati railway station
Q: 50. Dakshin Gangotri is _____________?
Indian Scientific Base Station in Antartica

Drug Inspector General Awareness & Mental Ability 

Q: 51. India has been divided into how many Seismic Risk Zones?
Q: 52. Landslides often occur inHilly region
Q.53.Which type of soil water is most useful for plant?
Capillary water
Q.54.Strip of trees and shrubs planted for protection of fields from Winds in coastal areas are
Shelter Belts
Q.55. A camel can tolerate a loss of water at about ________ of its body weight when exposed
to severe desert heat.
30 percent
Q.56. Ringworm is a __________that attacks the skin, hair and nails of both animals and
Q: 57. Raju ranks 7th from the top and 28th from the bottom. How many students are there in
the class?
Q: 58. Ravi moves 3 Km towards south, then turns to his left and moves 5 Km. Again he turns to
his right and goes only 3 Km. Which choice given below indicates the direction in which Ravi is
from his starting point?
Q: 59. The numbers 4, 6, and 8 have the frequencies (x + 2), x and (x – 1), and if their arithmetic
mean is 8, the value of x is:
Q: 60. The median of data 30, 25, 27, 25.8, 29, 35, 38, 28 is :
Q.61. If 40% of X is equal to Y, then Y% of 40 is equal to X% of
If x = 2+√3, then (x2 +

)is equal to:
Q.63. If 2x+3y = 8 and 4x-y = 2, then
X=1, Y = 2
Q.64. Let A and B are two sets containing 14 and 22 elements respectively. If A and B have 7
Common Elements, then the number of elements in AUB is
If =
, then value of cos + Sin ∶
√ −

Q.66. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 50 metre from its foot is 300
. The height of
tower is:

Q.67. The height of a tower is 100√3. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 100 metre
from its feet is:
Q.68. For a triangle ABC, D and E are two points on AB and AC such that AD=1
AB and AE=1
If BC = 15 c.m., then DE is:
5 c.m.
Q.69. If sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5, then this triangle is:
Right angled triangle
Q.70. In any triangle, sum of two sides is always
greater than third side
Q.76. Coppice shoot is defined as:
A shoot arising from an adventitious bud at the base of a woody plant that has been cut
near the ground
Q.77. Which of the following has excellent pollarding ability:
Hardwickia binata
Q.78. Hydrometeorology is the science which deals with
water in the atmosphere
Q.79. Ardeotis nigriceps is the zoological name of :
Great Indian Bustard
Q.80. Lysimeter is an instrument used to measure
Q.71. If the area of a rhombus is 168 m2 and the length of one diagonal is 48 m, the length of other
diagonal is:
7 m
Q.72. A sphere of 5 cm radius is melted and small spheres of radii 1 cm are made from it. The
number of spheres that can be made from it
Q.73. If two sides of an isosceles triangle are 7 cm and 13 cm, then which of followings may be
perimeter of the triangle

Government Pharmacist Old Solved Paper

Q.74. The ratio of the area of a square and area of a square made on diagonal of the square will be:
Q.75. A student has got the following grades on the test:
87, 95, 76 and 38.
He wants an average 85 for this exam. The minimum grade he must get on the last test in
order to achieve that average is:
Q.81. “Branch Bending in Guava” plants favours :
Better fruiting
Q.82. Rhinos in India have been translocated from Kaziranga to :
Manas National Park
Q.83. In selection system of Silviculture:
The mature crop is removed as single trees or in small groups over the whole of felling
Q.84. A soil must have following for supporting plant growth:
Mineral matter, organic matter, soil water and soil air
Q.85. International day for Biological Diversity is observed on :
May 22
Q.86. DNA fingerprinting is used for which of the following:
All of the given options
Q.87. A seed may not germinate, even if all favourable conditions are provided to germinate, it
may be due to:
Q.88. Development of fisheries is known as
Blue revolution
Q.89. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON) is in :
Q.90. Which one is the most prominent silvicultural tool for manipulation of tree growth in
agroforestry system:
Thinning and Prunning
Q.91. Canopy Density of forests is defined as:
The relative completeness of canopy usually expressed as a decimal coefficient, taking closed
canopy as unity.
Q.92. Regeneration felling is:
A felling of trees to invite or assist regeneration under a shelterwood system.
Q.93. A Biome is:
A large naturally occurring community of flora & fauna, occupying a major region.
Q.94. Continental drift
The hypothesis, proposed by Alfred Wegener, that today’s continents broke off from a single
Q.95. A planting graft technique in which scion is inserted in a narrow slit, made in the root
stock of the same species is
Notch grafting
Q.96. Volume table is
A table showing the estimated average tree or stand volume based on given tree
measurements, usually diameter and height
Q.97. In Ecological succession, Sere means:
The sequence of communities that replace one another in a given area.
Q.98. The progressive dying, usually backwards from the tip, of any portion of a plant; The
death of the shoot, the root remaining alive is termed as
Die back.
Q.99. Slender Loris is found in :
Southern India
Q.100. The point, where CAI (Current Annual Increment) and MAI (Mean Annual Increment)
meet is the
Rotation of maximum volume production

RRB Railway Recruitment Board Pharmacist General Paper

Q.101. Littoral Forest means
A forest growing at or near the sea-shore.
Q.102. An organism which has its body heat regulated by the temperature of its surroundings is
termed as:
Q.103. Artificial seed is
Encapsulated somatic embryos.
Q.104. A knee-shaped or spike-like projection of the roots of swamp trees enabling the submerged roots to obtain oxygen.
Q.105. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between
Fungi and roots of higher plants
Q.106. The time that elapses between successive main fellings on the same area is known in
silvicultural terms:
Felling cycle
Q.107. Rotation is
The planned number of years between the formation or regeneration of crop and its
final felling.
Q.108. The salinity in water
reduces the evaporation
Q.109. Magma Chamber is
The subterranean cavity containing the gas-rich liquid magma which feeds a volcano.
Q.110. Most suitable tree species used in afforestation of coastal areas:
Casuarina equisetifolia
Q.111. Icebox is a fruit type of
Q.112. A method of improving soil texture by the use of lime or other soil conditioners, thereby
increasing the air content, especially in heavy clay soils.
Q.113. Amphistomatic leaves means
Leaves having stomata on both surfaces.
Q.114. Vegetables are canned in :
Q.115. What are the state animal, state tree and state flower of Andhra Pradesh
Black buck, Neem and Jasmine
Q.116. What is the ideal direction for a greenhouse to orient, in India?
Q.117. The most important breeding areas for Olive Ridley turtle along the Bay of Bengal in
Indian Ocean is the coast of
Q.118. A forest which has been reproduced through sprouting from stumps of felled trees is
Coppice forest
Q.119. All lands with tree cover of canopy density between 10% and 40% is called _____
Open forest
Q.120. _________ indicates the productive capacity of a specific area of forest land for a
particular tree species.
Site quality
Q.121. A process which removes injured, disease or insect-infested trees is called ______..
Sanitation cutting
Q.122. ICFRE was established during the year_____ and is headquartered at______
1986, Dehradun
Q.123. A snag is a _________________.
A standing dead tree
Q.124. Soil formed from parent material in situ
Sedentary soil
Q.125. The rotation which yields the highest net return on the invested capital is called
Financial rotation
Q. 126.One of the following instruments used for tree height measurement is based on the
principle of similar triangles – Identify the same
Christen’s hypsometer
Q.127. India became a party to CITES in the year___________, which is a body for regulating—-
1976 International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna & Flora.
Q.128. An Engineer’s chain measures
100 ft long
Q.129. The table showing the distribution of stems by diameter classes for each of the series of
crop diameters is called
Stand table
Q.130. The Asiatic lion is included in the following schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act of
Q.131. The most important physical property of wood is its
Moisture content
Q.132. The ratio of diameter to girth of trees will be less than
Q.133.The second Biosphere Reserve following the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established at
Nanda Devi
Q.134. A pair of appendages that present at the point of attachment of a leaf to the stem is
Q.135. Photosynthesis is :
Anabolic process
Q.136. Which of the following is the International agreement which aims to ensure the safe
handling, transport and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern
Cartagena Protocol
Q.137. The floating national park is situated in the state of
Q.138. Seeds which cannot be dried to moisture contents below 30% without injury and are
unable to tolerate freezing are called
Recalcitrant seeds
Q.139. Which one of the following is the second largest brackish-water lagoon in India?
Pulicat lake
Q.140. Which one of the following four tiger reserves is the largest in India?
Nagarjuna Sagar – Srisailam tiger reserve
Q.141. Which one of the following is a Ramsar site?
Kolleru lake
Q.142. What is the selective removal of certain parts of a plant, such as branches, buds, or roots
is called?
Q.143. GIS deals with which kind of data
Spatial data
Q.144. Which one of the following is the algebraic difference between discounted benefits and
discounted costs as they occur over time?
Net present value
Q.145. Foot and mouth disease in animals is caused by
Q. 146. Sampling method in which the sampling units are selected according to a predetermined patters is
Systematic sampling
Q. 147. Type of survey in which the curvature of the earth is not taken into account is called
Plane survey
Q.148. The vertical distance between any two consecutive contours is known as
Contour interval
Q.149. This Act was to consolidate and amend the law relating to the protection and
management of forests in State of Andhra Pradesh.
Andhra Pradesh Forest Act, 1967
Q.150. Maintenance of environmental stability, maintenance of ecological balance including
atmosphere equilibrium are the principle objectives of____________.
National Forest Policy, 1988

Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Questions General Studies Part 1

Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Questions General Studies


1. In a Dengue patient, the following would fall down drastically?
Count of Platelets
2. The following is generally used in bone healing in humans?
3. Radioactivity was discovered by?
Henri Becquerel
4. The most abundant element in the Universe is?
5. In a healthy adult, what is the approximate percentage of white blood cells in total blood
One percent
6. During winter in cold countries, the following is mixed to melt the ice on the roads?
7. Which of the following planets moves around the Sun with highest speed?
8. Apart from Sun light and Carbon Dioxide, the source for production of Oxygen through
photosynthesis in plants is?
9. In Chlorophyll, the central metal ion is?
10. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
11. Which of the following is an inorganic lubricant?
12. When an iron nail gets rusted, its weight?
13. In its natural state, the odour of LPG is?
LPG is odourless gas
14. Out of the following, which compoundhas highest solubility in Water?
15. Gamma Rays are?
Rays without any charge
16. The most common method Uranium enrichment is?
17. In vulcanization of natural rubber, the following is used?
18. If a person goes down into a deep mine, his weight?
Decreases slightly
19. Oyster shells are composed primarily of?
Calcium Carbonate
20. A hydrometer is used to measure?
Relative density of liquids
21. The intensity of earthquakes is measured using?
Mercalli Scale
22. Recently India held a 2+2 dialogue with?
23. The theme of National Statistics Day celebrated on 29th June, 2018 was?
Quality Assurance in Official Statistics
24. What of the following is not one of the objectives of Solar Charkha mission launched by
President of India in June, 2018?
To provide solar charkhas to 10 lakh handloom weavers
25. Manufacture and import of which of the following hormones is banned by Government of India
from 1st July, 2018?
26. Who amongst the following is one of the winners of World Food Prize, 2018?
Lawrance Haddad
27. Who is the present Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
Harivansh Narayan Singh
28. Which country gifted two giant tortoises to India, which are kept at Nehru Zoological Park,
Hyderabad in June, 2018?
29. What is the name of the program launched recently by Indian Railways on ethics in public
Mission Satyanishta
30. By which name, the longest lunar eclipse of the Century (occurred in July, 2018) is called?
Blood moon

Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Previous Questions

31. Who amongst the following got Ramon Magsaysay Award for 2018?
32. What is name of the flagship programme launched by Government of India in 2018 aiming at
holistic nutrition for children, adolescents, pregnant women and lactating mothers?
33. To which country India donated 200 cows during Prime Minister’s visit in July, 2018?
34. What is the name of the navy sailor from India, who participated in Golden Globe Race and was
rescued by a French fishing vessel when his boat was damaged in deep waters recently?
35. The draft of National Register of Citizens was recently published with reference to the State of?
36. Which High Court of India recently declared entire animal kingdom as legal entities with rights,
duties and liabilities of a living person?
Uttarakhand High Court
37. As per the Public Affairs Index, 2018, which is the best governed State in India?
38. How many medals are won by India at Asian Games, 2018?
39. Who out of the following persons won a Gold medal at Asian Games, 2018 in Wrestling?
40. Which of the following athletes is nicknamed as “Dhing Express”?
Hima Das
41. Who won the Gold medal in Women’s Singles Category of Badminton at Asian Games, 2018?
Tai Tzu-Ying
42. Which of the following Indus Valley sites is in India?
43. Ancient people of South India buried the dead along with weapons, tools, pottery etc in graves
and placed big stones around the graves. These structures are known as?
44. Which metal did the ancient Indians use first?
45. The administrative setup of early Aryans was in the nature of?
Tribal polity
46. The interaction of Indian craftsman with Greeks and Romans resulted in the following art form?
Gandhara Art
47. Which of the following Satavahana Kings had immense love for overseas trade and navigation so
much so that the coins issued by him had picture of a ship?
48. The Grand Trunk Road from Indus to Bengal was restored by one of the following rulers?
Sher Shah Suri
49. The Mansabdari system was introduced by?
a. Sher Shah
b. Akbar
c. Jehangir
d. Aurangazeb
50. In Mughal period, the letter of credit issued by Shroffs (money keepers) to people who
deposited cash for collecting it later or collecting the cash at a different place after journey was
a. Farman
51. Out of the following, who plundered Delhi and carried away the Koh-i-Noor diamond?
Nadir Shah
52. Out of the following, who introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal?
MurshidQuli Khan
53. Which was the seat of power of Peshwas?
54. Who were executed by the British along with Bhagat Singh on 23rd March, 1931?
Sukhdev and Rajguru
55. The Poorna Swaraj declaration was promulgated by Indian National Congress in 1929 at?
Lahore Session
56. At the time of Independence, which of the following Nawabs announced accession to Pakistan
though most of the population desired to stay with India?
Nawab of Junagadh
57. Partition of Bengal was done by the British in the year?
58. Out of the below, a prominent leader of militant nationalist thought was?
Bal GangadharTilak
59. The Swadeshi movement was also known in Andhra region as?
VandeMataram Movement
60. Out of the following who wrote the “History of Indian National Congress”

Drug Inspector Exam Bihar AP Maharastra Kerala Important Solved Paper

61. Why did Congress Ministries in provinces resign in 1939?
Protesting against decision of Viceroy to make India as party to war with Germany
62. Approximately how many people died in Great Bengal Famine of 1943 (choose the nearest
About 20 lakh
63. The visit of Mahatma Gandhi to Naokhali between November 1946 to March 1947 after the riots
resulted in?
Gandhiji failed to stop the enmity and violence
64. Out of the following, who first referred the matter of “Kashmir” to the United Nations Security
Council in 1948?
65. Out of the persons below, Who founded the Hindusthan Socialist Republican Association?
Bhagat Singh
66. Out of the below, India is part of the following land?
Gondwana Land
67. The valleys in Siwalik ranges are called as?
68. What is a “doab”?
An area between two rivers
69. “Ooty” is situated in?
70. Which of the following places in Andaman & Nicobar Islands is of volcanic origin?
Barren Island
71. Which of the following rivers is located in Brahmaputra basin?
72. Which of the following is the standard meridian of India?
82°30′ E
73. Which of the following places in India receives the highest average annual rainfall?
74. In Kerala, the pre-monsoon showers are popularly known as?
Mango showers
75. Hangul deer is endemic habitant of?
76. Red Sanders are endemic species of the following hill range?
Seshachalam range
77. What is the position of Andhra Pradesh State in Lime Stone production (quantity) in India?
Third Position
78. Sillimanite mining is done in the following district of Andhra Pradesh?
79. As per Census 2011, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh has lowest number of
rural population as percentage of total population of the District?
80. As per Census, 2011, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh had the highest
percentage of child population (as percentage of total population of the district)?
81. The highest peak in Eastern Ghats is?
Aroya Konda
82. As mentioned in the AP Reorganization Act, 2014, which port was to be developed by the
83. The grasslands of North America are known as?
84. The varying lengths of day and light at different times of year at any place on earth is due to the
fact that?
The axis of the earth is inclinedto the elliptic of revolution around Sun
85. Majority of the deserts of the World lie between the following latitudes?
0 to 15 degree north and south latitudes
86. The Masai tribesman are residents of?
87. The temperature of the “Photosphere” of Sun is about?
6000 degrees centigrade
88. Which is the most earthquake prone nation in the World?
89. As per latest data, which Country of the World produces the highest quantity of Gold?
90. As per State of Forest report, 2015, which of the following States has highest forest cover as
percentage of its area?

Drug inspector preparation notes

91. Which of the following stretches of Andhra Pradesh is most vulnerable to Cyclones?
Ongole to Machilipatnam
92. Which Cyclone caused maximum loss of human life in Andhra Pradesh?
1977 Cyclone
93. The speed of a Tsunami wave approaching the shore would be?
The Tsunami wave slows down in speed
94. In the post disaster scenario, which of the following operations play major role?
Search and Rescue
95. In earth quake resistant design, the door and window openings on walls should be?
Small and centrally located
96. Which of the following Statements is most appropriate?
I. Earthquakes do not kill people
II. It is badly designed buildings that kill people
Both Statements are true and Statement II is the reason behind Statement I
97. For the purpose of reducing wind force on a roof, the following type of roof is preferable?
Pyramidal type
98. The responsibility to cope up with natural disasters essentially lies with?
State Government
99. The nodal ministry to coordinate disaster management operations in case of biological disasters
Ministry of Home Affairs
100. Who heads the National Crisis Management Committee constituted by Central Government for
disaster management?
Cabinet Secretary
101. Which Article of the Constitution prescribes six freedoms?
Article 19
102. The Union of India is?
Indissoluble union of States
103. The Inter State Council is Constituted under which Article of the Constitution?
Article 263
104. Out of the following, what is true about the fundamental rights?
They are granted by the Constitution
105. To become a Member of Parliament of India, a person has to be?
No educational qualification is necessary

Drug Inspector Exam previous solved General studies Questions paper
106. The word “Secularism” was added to the preamble of the Constitution through?
42nd Amendment
107. The Salaries and allowances of Judges of Supreme Court of India are met from?
Consolidated fund of India
108. The right to education is a?
Fundamental right
109. In which year, Emergency was promulgated by President due to “internal disturbances”?
110. What is the minimum age for a person to be elected as President of India?
35 years
111. How many readings would a bill undergo in a house of Parliament before it is passed?
Three readings
112. How many members are nominated by the President to Rajya Sabha from the fields of Arts,
Literature, Science, Social Service etc?
113. In how many days after receipt, the Legislative Council has to send back a “money bill” to
Legislative Assembly?
14 days
114. Which of the following is an “essential function” of Gram Panchayat?
Maintaining burial grounds
115. Out of the following, which is the major source of revenue for Panchayats?
Property Tax
116. Out of the following, which is not a feature of the 1991 New Economic Policy?
117. As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, the objective is to stabilize the population by the
118. FEMA was passed in the parliament in the year 1999 replacing FERA. One of the objectives of
FEMA as stated in the preamble of the Act is?
Facilitating external trade and payments
119. The Five Year Plan that proposed land reforms through cooperative land management for the
first time is?
Second Five Year Plan
120. The growth of the Indian economy in the post 1991 period is mainly attributable to?
Service led growth
121. The most important item in India’s imports in term of expenditure for most of the post-reform
period is?
Petroleum, oil and lubricants
122. The largest recipient of private remittances in the world in 2015 is?
123. The current exchange policy of India is?
Market determined exchange rate
124. The state which occupies the 1st position in bank depositsas on March 2017 is?
125. The establishment of which institution marks the beginning of the era of development
financing in India?
126. The Five Year Plan with the motto “Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth” is?
Twelfth Five Year Plan
127. The Chairman of Goods and Service Tax Council is
Union Finance Minister
128. An example of a hidden subsidy is seen in
Higher education in Public Universities
129. During the first four decades of planning in India, principal component of revenue of the central
government was from
Indirect taxes
130. Structural adjustment programs deal with
Reducing fiscal imbalances and adjust economy to long term growth

Drug inspector previous question papers

131. Book is to Library as Manuscript is to?
132. Monkey is to Nut as Sheep is to?
133. Find the odd one out of the following?
134. Ram runs faster than Shyam but is not fast as Janaki whilst Jane always beats Ram. Who is the
fastest runner amongst the above?
The above information is not sufficient to find out the correct answer
135. Jagan, Kishan and Madan have two favourite foods each. One of them does not like Rasgulla but
likes Lemon Rice. Kishan likes Parathas but Jagan does not like them. Madan likes Rasgulla.
Kishanand Jagan like Salad. Who likes Lemon rice if it is one of the favourite foods, the other
being Rasgulla, Salad and Parathas?
136. Find the next number in the series 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8 …..?
137. Find the next number in the series 2, 5, 11, 23, 47?
138. If coffee is 4, 16, 7, 7, 6, 6; then tea is?
139. Find the next figure in sequence?
140. Find the missing figure in the sequence of diagrams?
141. If AWAKE is coded as ZVZJD, what is the code for FRIEND?
142. If DIAMOND is coded as WRZNLMW then GARNET is coded as?
143. If PROTECT IS CODED as QSPUFDU, then DESTROY is coded as?
144. A clock shows 8 o’clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate
when the clock shows 2 o’clock in the afternoon?
145. Rajesh went 15 km to the North from his house. Then he turned west and covered 10 km. Then
he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to the east, he covered 10 km. In which
direction is he from his house?
The following table provides education details of 16 year old children for three years. Read the table
carefully and answer the questions below:
Type of education Year and percentage of Children
2015 2016 2017
Full time Intermediate 69.4 69.8 71.2
Out of which
Study in Aided Colleges 28.0 28.2 28.9
Study in Govt Colleges 6.4 6.3 6.2
Study in Private Colleges 35.0 35.3 36.1
Polytechnic Colleges 17.4 16.8 15.5
Not studying in any college 13.2 13.4 13.3
Number of 16 year old (in thousands) 600.4 605.1 609.2
146. In 2016 how many 16 year old children were studying in Polytechnic Colleges (rounded off to
nearest integer)?
a. 101657
147. How many 16 years old more were studying in Private colleges in the year 2017 compared to
year 2016 (rounded off to nearest integer)?
None of the given options is correct
148. In 2015, what is the ratio of students in aided colleges: students in Govt colleges: students in
Private Colleges (rounded off to two decimals)?
4.38 : 1 : 5.47
149. What is the aggregate number of children who were not studying in any college for the three
years together (rounded off to nearest integer)?
150. What is the aggregate number of children who were studying Intermediate in Govt college for
the three years together (rounded off to nearest integer)?

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence GPAT RRB Questions & Answers {PDF}

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence GPAT Questions & Answers {PDF}

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence GPAT Questions & Answers {PDF} which is really helpful for RRB railway recruitment board pharmacist examination.


Pharmaceutical jurisprudence Questions

Medicinal and Toilet preparations (Excise duties) Act 1955


Which indication must be prescribed on the label of ophthalmic ointments
A. Use within 1 month of opening
B. It is dangerous to take this preparation except under medical supervision
C. Consult to Physician if irritation persist, discontinue the use
D. Not for human use

Narcotic Drug and Psychotropic substances Act 1985

1) A Consumer Dispute Redressal Forum at the District level.
2) A Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission at the State level.
3) A National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission at national level.
4) A Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission at the constitution level.

First Edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in 1955


The State Pharmacy Council consist s of the following except

the chief administrative medical officer
the Government Analyst.
Six members, elected from amongst themselves by registered pharmacists
Registered nurse

Which Schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act governs the clinical trials legislative requirements of the Drugs and Cosmetics

Schedule X
Schedule Y
Schedule M
Schedule C

“New Drugs” shall mean and include all Except

Drugs not previously available in Indian market
Drugs with new therapeutic indications or dosages that have not been marketed in India.
New fixed -dose combinations of two or more drugs.
Any drug which was already approved in India and included in the Indian pharmacopoeia.

multiple choice questions with answers on jurisprudence PDF

Medical stores are inspected by drug inspector for at least
A. Once a year
B. Twice in a year
C. Thrice in a year
D. Quarterly in a year


A. Legal heir of consumer in case death of consumer
B. Any person who buys goods for resale or commercial purpose and services for commercial purpose
C. However any person who buys goods for commercial use but exclusively for his livelihood by means of self employment is a consumer

D. Any person who buys goods or avails services for consideration


Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence GPAT Multiple Choice Questions & Answers {PDF}pdf

Storage Temperature on Label – Freeze Cold Cool Dry Label Storage Temperature

Storage Temperature on Label - Freeze Cold Cool Dry Label Storage Temperature

Hello buddies. Pharmawiki.in here with another amazing and most important article “Storage Temperature on Label – Freeze Cold Cool Dry Label Storage Temperature” for all the pharma students pharmacists and any one who is into pharmaceutical field. This article not only helps pharma people but also the general public as we see these terms daily on all the pharmaceutical products we use. Specifically today we are talking about storage temperature on the label. These temperatures and definitions will also help you in many competitive and entrance examinations like GPAT Pharmacist exam, Drug Inspector examination. Then why delay just jump into the points straight away. 

Storage Temperature and Humidity

Specific directions are stated in some monographs with respect to the temperatures and humidity at which official articles shall be stored and distributed (including the shipment of articles to the consumer) when stability data indicate that storage and distribution at a lower or a higher temperature and a higher humidity produce undesirable results. Such directions apply except where the label on an article states a different storage temperature on the basis of stability studies of that particular formulation. Where no specific storage directions or limitations are provided in the individual monograph, but the label of an article states a storage temperature that is based on stability studies of that particular formulation, such labeled storage directions apply. ) The conditions are defined by the following terms.


“Freezer” indicates a place in which the temperature is maintained thermostatically between −25° and −10° (−13° and 14°F).


Any temperature not exceeding 8° (46°F) is “cold.” A “refrigerator” is a cold place in which the temperature is maintained thermostatically between 2° and 8° (36° and 46°F).


Any temperature between 8° and 15° (46° and 59°F) is “cool.” An article for which storage in a cool place is directed may, alternatively, be stored and distributed in a refrigerator, unless otherwise specified by
the individual monograph.

 Controlled Cold Temperature

Storage Temperature on Label - Freeze Cold Cool Dry Label Storage Temperature

“Controlled cold temperature” is defined as temperature maintained thermostatically between 2° and 8° (36° and 46°F), that allows for excursions in temperature between 0° and 15° (32° and 59°F) that may be experienced during storage, shipping, and distribution such that the allowable calculated mean kinetic temperature is not more than 8° (46°F). Transient spikes up to 25° (77°F) may be permitted if the manufacturer so instructs and provided that such spikes do not exceed 24 hours unless supported by stability data or the manufacturer instructs otherwise.

Room Temperature

“Room temperature” indicates the temperature prevailing in a working area.

Controlled Room Temperature

“Controlled room temperature” indicates a temperature maintained thermostatically that encompasses the usual and customary working environment of 20° to 25° (68° to 77°F); that results in a mean kinetic temperature calculated to be not more than 25°; and that allows for excursions between 15° and 30° (59° and 86°F) that are experienced in pharmacies, hospitals, and warehouses. Provided the mean kinetic temperature remains in the allowed range, transient spikes up to 40° are permitted as long as they do not exceed 24 hours. Spikes above 40° may be permitted if the manufacturer so instructs. Articles may be labeled for storage at “controlled room temperature” or at “up to 25°”, or USP Pharmacists’ Pharmacopeia

General Notices other wording based on the same mean kinetic temperature. The mean kinetic temperature is a calculated value that may be used as an isothermal storage temperature that simulates the nonisothermal effects of storage temperature variations.  An article for which storage at controlled room temperature is directed may, alternatively, be stored and distributed in a cool place, unless otherwise specified in the individual monograph or on the label.


Any temperature between 30° and 40° (86° and 104°F) is “warm.”

 Excessive Heat

“Excessive heat” means any temperature above 40° (104°F).

Protection From Freezing

Where, in addition to the risk of breakage of the container, freezing subjects an article to loss of strength or potency, or to destructive alteration of its characteristics, the container label bears an appropriate instruction to protect the article from freezing.

Dry Place

The term “dry place” denotes a place that does not exceed 40% average relative humidity at Controlled Room Temperature or the equivalent water vapor pressure at other temperatures. The determination may be made by direct measurement at the place or may be based on reported climatic conditions. Determination is based on not less than 12 equally spaced measurements that encompass either a season, a year, or, where recorded data demonstrate, the storage period of the article. There may be values of up to 45% relative humidity provided that the average value is 40% relative humidity. Storage in a container validated to protect the article from moisture vapor, including storage in bulk, is considered storage in a dry place.

I hope this Storage Temperature on Label – Freeze Cold Cool Dry Label Storage Temperature article helped you. You need to know the definitions of these exactly to know where to store your medicines.



Tod we will discuss HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET in the recent examinations. All the public service commissions and other government private and entrance examination are likely to follow the same pattern of OMR marking answering system for the evaluation. I think this is the best evaluation and one need to be very careful while filling up the form. So, We thought to publish an article on your favorite pharmawiki.in to help all the students and other aspirants to have a safe practice while attempting your examinations.


First let us start with a picture of Sample OMR sheet. Have a look at it keenly.


Sample OMR Sheet


INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

Fill boxes in BLUE/BLACK ball point pen only.

INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

Darken the circles by BLUE/BLACK ball point pen only.

Sample OMR Sheet

Do not write anything else on this OMR sheet.

Darken the circles only like this.


Roll Number


hall ticket INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet





entrance exam INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet




This is another important section for you to concentrate and do the work. You need to fill the bubble with right date of birth if not you may be out as it can be a reason for your disqualification in the examination you are giving right now for your better  career prospects. So be careful while filling your entire OMR sheet.

Appsc INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet

3. DATE OF BIRTH – As mentioned in the application form

I hope our article “HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET – UPSC APPSC GPAT Exams” helped you to a small extent before you take up any offline competitive exams. This is a small guide to the instructions for filling the omr sheet without any mistake as our exams are very important to us. All the best my friends and I wish you all the very best for all your future endeavors. May God Bless.

NAPLEX FPGEE OSPAP KAPS PEBC Pharmacist Exam Quick Revision #1 Pharmacology Guide

NAPLEX FPGEE OSPAP KAPS PEBC Pharmacist Exam Quick Revision #1 Pharmacology Guide

Here Pharmawiki is presenting last day revision for all the aspirants of different pharmacist examinations like  NAPLEX FPGEE OSPAP KAPS PEBC Pharmacist Exam. You can consider it as a Quick Revision on Pharmacology  subject which will help you to qualify and score well in these examinations. This tiny Guide will surely help you to assess your exam preparation level.


1. venous ulcer treatment >
exclude arteriopathy (eg ABPI), control
oedema, prevent infection, compression bandaging.
2. Cushings – Diagnosis: 24hr urinary free cortisol. Addisons >
short synacthen.
3. Rash on buttocks – Dermatitis herpetiformis (coeliac dx).
4. AF with TIA >
Warfarin. Just TIA’s with no AF >
5. Herpes encephalitis >
temporal lobe calicification OR temporoparietal
attentuation – subacute onset i.e. Several days.
6. Obese woman, papilloedema/headache >
Benign Intercanial
7. Drug induced pneumonitis >
methotrexate or amiodarone.
8. chest discomfort and dysphagia >
9. foreign travel, macpap rash/flu like illnes >
HIV acute.
10. cause of gout >
dec urinary excretion.
11. bullae on hands and fragule SKIN torn by minor trauma >
cutanea tarda.
12. Splenectomy >
need pneumococcal vaccine AT LEAST 2 weeks preop
and for life.
13. primary hrperparathyroidism >
high Ca, normal/low PO4, normal/high
PTH (in elderly).
14. middle aged man with KNEE arthritis >
gonococcal sepsis (older
people >
15. sarcoidosis, erythema nodosum, arthropathy >
Loffgrens syndrome
benign, no Rx needed.
16. TREMOR postural,slow progression,titubation, relieved by OH>
essential TREMOR AutDom. (MS – titbation, PD – no titubation)
17. electrolytes disturbance causing confusion – low/high Na.

FPGEE | National Association of Boards of Pharmacy

18. contraindications lung Surgery >
FEV dec bp 130/90, Ace inhibitors (if
proteinuria analgesic induced headache.
21. 1.5 cm difference btwn kidneys >
Renal artery stenosis >
resonance angiogram.
22. temporal tenderness>
temporal arteritis >
steroids > 90% ischaemic
neuropathy, 10% retinal art occlusion.
23. severe retroorbital, daily headache, lacrimation >
cluster headache.
24. pemphigus – involves mouth (mucus membranes), pemphigoid – less
serious NOT mucosa.
25. diagnosis of polyuria >
water deprivation test, then DDAVP.
26. insulinoma >
24 hr supervised fasting hypoglycaemia.
27. Diabetes Random >7 or if >6 OGTT (75g) >
>11.1 also seen in HCT.
28. causes of villous atrophy: coeliac (lymphocytic infiltrate), Whipples , dec
Ig, lymphoma, trop sprue (rx tetracycline).
29. diarrhoea, bronchospasm, flushing, tricuspid stenosis >
gut carcinoid c
liver mets.
3/5/2017 MRCP part 1
https://www.facebook.com/groups/51506029930/permalink/10155082909759931/ 2/5
30. hepatitis B with general deterioration >
hepaocellular carcinoma.
31. albumin normal, total protein high >
myeloma (hypercalcaemia,
32. HBSag positive, HB DNA not detectable >
chornic carier.
33. Inf MI, artery invlived >
Right coronary artert.


NAPLEX Exam guide

34. Aut dom conditions: Achondroplasia, Ehler Danlos, FAP, FAMILIAL
hyperchol,Gilberts, Huntington’s, Marfans’s, NFT I/II, Most porphyrias,
tuberous sclerosis, vWD, PeutzJeghers.
35. X linked: Beck/Duch musc dyst, alports, Fragile X, G6PD, Haemophilia
36. Loud S1: MS, hyperdynamic, short PR. Soft S1: immobile MS, MR.
37. Loud S2: hypertension, AS. Fixed split: ASD. Opening snap: MOBILE
MS, severe near S2.
38. HOCM/MVP inc
by standing, dec by squating (inc all others). HOCM
inc by valsalva, decs all others. Sudden death athlete, FH, Rx.
Amiodarone, ICD.
39. MVP sudden worsening post MI. Harsh systolic murmur radites to
40. Dilated Cardiomyopathy: OH, bp, thiamine/selenium deficiency, MD,
cocksackie/HIV, preg, doxorubicin, infiltration (HCT, sarcoid), tachycardia.
41. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy: sclerodermma, amyloid, sarcoid, HCT,
glycogen storage, Gauchers, fibrosis, hypereosinophilia Lofflers,
caracinoid, malignancy, radiotherapy, toxins.
42. Tumor compressing Respiratory tract >
investigation: flow volume
43. Guillan Barre syndrome: check VITAL CAPACITY.
44. Horners – sweating lost in upper face only – lesion proximal to common
carotid artery.
45. Internuclear opthalmoplegia: medial longitudinal fasciculus connects
CN nucleus 34.
Ipsilateral adduction palsy, contralateral nystagmus. Aide
memoire (TRIES TO YANK THE ipsilateral BAD eye ACROSS THE nose ).
Convergence retraction nystagmus, but convergence reflex is normal.
Causes: MS, SLE, Miller fisher, overdose(barb, phenytoin, TCA), Wernicke.
46. Progressive Supranuclear palsy: Steel Richardson. Absent voluntary
downward gaze, normal dolls eye . i.e. Occulomotor nuclei intact,
supranuclear Pathology .

The Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences (KAPS) Exam

47. Perinauds syndrome: dorsal midbrain syndrome, damaged midrain and
superior colliculus: impaired upgaze (cf PSNP), lid retraction, convergence
preserved. Causes: pineal tumor, stroke, hydrocephalus, MS.
48. demetia, gait abnormaily, urinary incontinence. Absent papilloedema>
Normal pressure hydrocephalus.
49. acute red eye >
acute closed angle glaucoma >> less common (ant
uveitis, scleritis, episcleritis, subconjuntival haemmorrhage).
50. wheeles, URTICARIA , drug induced >
3/5/2017 MRCP part 1
https://www.facebook.com/groups/51506029930/permalink/10155082909759931/ 3/5
51. sweats and weight gain >
52. diagnostic test for asthma >
morning dip in PEFR >20%.
53. Causes of SIADH : chest/cerebral/pancreas Pathology , porphyria,
malignancy, Drugs (carbamazepine, chlorpropamide, clofibrate,
atipsychotics, NSAIDs, rifampicin, opiates)
54. Causes of Diabetes Insipidus: Cranial: tumor, infiltration, trauma
Nephrogenic: Lithium, amphoteracin, domeclocycline, prologed
hypercalcaemia/hypornatraemia, FAMILIAL X linked type
55. bisphosphonates:inhibit osteoclast activity, prevent steroid incduced
osteoperosis (vitamin D also).
56.returned from airline flight, TIA>
paradoxical embolus do TOE.
57. alcoholic, given glucose develops nystagmus >
B1 deficiency
(wernickes). Confabulation>
58. monoartropathy
with thiazide >
gout (neg birefringence). NO
ALLOPURINOL for acute.
59. painful 3rd nerve palsy >
posterior communicating artery aneurysm till
proven otherwise
60 late complication of scleroderma >
pumonaryhypertention plus/minus
61. causes of erythema mutliforme: lamotrigine
62. vomiting, abdominal pain, hypothyroidism >
Addisonian crisis (TFT
typically abnormal in this setting DO NOT give thyroxine).
63. mouth/genital ulcers and oligarthritis >
behcets (also eye /SKIN
lesions, DVT)
64. mixed drug overdose most important step >
Nacetylcysteine (time
dependent prognosis)
65. cavernous sinus syndrome 3rd
nerve palsy, proptosis, periorbital
swlling, conj injectn
66. asymetric parkinsons >
likely to be idiopathic
67. Obese, NIDDM female with abnormal LFT’s >
NASH (nonalcoholic
steatotic hepatitis)
68. fluctuating level of conciousness in elderly plus/minus deterioration >
chronic subdural. Can last even longer than 6 months
69. Sensitivity >
TP/(TP plus FN) e.g. For SLE ANA
highly sens,
dsDNA:highly specific
70. RR is 8%. NNT is >
100/8 >
50/4 >
25/2 >

Australian Pharmacy Council

71. ipsilateral ataxia, Horners, contralateral loss pain/temp >
PICA stroke
(lateral medulary syndrome of Wallenburg)
72. renal stones (80% calcium, 10% uric acid, 5% ammonium (proteus),
3% other). Uric acid and cyteine stone are radioluscent.
73. hyperprolactinaemia (allactorrohea, amenorrohea, low FSH/LH) >
antags (metoclopramide, chlorpromazine, cimetidine NOT TCA’s),
pregnancy, PCOS, pit tumor/microadenoma, stress.
74. Distal, asymetric arthropathy >
3/5/2017 MRCP part 1
https://www.facebook.com/groups/51506029930/permalink/10155082909759931/ 4/5
75. episodic headache with tachycardia >
76. very raised WCC >
ALWAYS think of leukaemia.

OSPAP qualification

77. Diagnosis of CLL >
immunophenotyping NOT cytogenetics, NOT
bone marrow
78. Prognostic factors for AML >
bm karyotype (good/poor/standard) >>
WCC at diagnosis.
79. pancytopenia with raised MCV >
check B12/folate first (other causes
possble, but do this FIRST). Often associayed with phenytoin use >
decreased folate
80. miscariage, DVT, stroke >
LUPUS anticoagulant >
81. Hb elevated, dec ESR >
polycythaemua (2ndry if paO2 low)
82. anosmia, delayed puberty >
Kallmans syndrome (hypogonadotrophic
83. diag of PKD >
renal US even if think anorexia nervosa
85. commonest finding in G6PD hamolysis >
86. mitral stenosis: loud S1 (soft s1 if severe), opening snap.. Immobile
valve >
no snap.

PEBC Guide to Pharmacist

87. Flank pain, urinalysis:blood, protein >
renal vein thrombosis. Causes:
nephrotic syndrome, RCC, amyloid, acute pyelonephritis, SLE
(atiphospholipid syndrome which is recurrent thrombosis, fetal loss, dec plt.
Usual cause of cns manifestations assoc with LUPUS ancoagulant,
anticardiolipin ab)
88. anaemia in the elderly assume GI malignancy
89. hypothermia, acute renal failure >
rhabdomyolysis (collapse assumed)
90. pain, numbness lateral upper thigh >
meralgia paraesthesia (lat
cutaneous nerve compression usally by by ing ligament)
91. diagnosis of haemochromatosis: screen with Ferritin, confirm by
tranferrin saturation, genotyping. If nondiagnostic do liver biopsy 0.3%
92. 40 mg hidrocortisone divided doses (bd) >
10 mg prednisolone (ie.
Prednislone is x4 stronger)
93. BTS: TB guidlines – close contacts >
Heaf test >
positive CXR,
negative >
repeat Heaf in 6 weeks. Isolation not required.
94. Diptheria >
exudative pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, cardio and neuro
95. Indurated plaques on cheeks, scarring alopecia, hyperkeratosis over
hair follicles >>
Discoid LUPUS
96. wt loss, malabsoption, inc ALP >
pancreatic cancer
97. foreign travel, tender RUQ, raised ALP >
liver abscess do U/S
98. wt loss, anaemia (macro/micro), no obvious cause >
coeliac (diarrhoea
does NOT have to be present)
99. haematuria, proteinuria, best investigation >
if glomerulonephritis
suspected >
renal biopsy

100. Acromegaly – Diagnosis: OGTT followed by GH conc.
101. Malaria, incubation within 3/12. can be relapsing /remitting. Vivax and
Ovale (West Africa) longer imcubation.
102. Fever, lymphadenopathy, lymphocytosis, pharygitis >
heterophile antibodies
103. GI bleed after endovascular AAA Surgery >
aortoenteric fistula

Getting Passed D. Pharmacy Course With Ease – D.Pharm hard or easy?

Getting Passed D. Pharmacy Course With Ease : As we know that Diploma in Pharmacy or D.Pharm program is a 2-year diploma course right after the class 12 boards. The reason why people choose to study D.Pharm is that it can get you a Pharmacy Shop License after completing the course with which you can run a private store. B. Pharm degree can also get you the license but then it takes 4 years of curriculum and definitely a depth of knowledge needed for serving multivariate job prospects in the Pharmaceutical sector. So for people who solely want to go for a career related to pharmacy marketing and business is ideal for studying D.Pharmacy. Also, the diploma course is convenient to pass in terms of other pharmacy degrees. The students grasp knowledge in subjects like biology, chemical industry, how to deal with plant drugs and some basic knowledge of chemistry. These include both practical as well as theoretical knowledge, to make the understanding and learning for the students interactive.

Pass D. Pharmacy Course With Ease 

Though a minimum of 40 marks is needed out of 100 separately in theory and practical including sessional marks. Diploma in Pharmacy consists of subjects relatively the ones you need to spend quality time on. You have to have the concepts clear in the subject, and an urge to grasp knowledge and spend ample of hours on this. One shall not be declared to have passed Diploma in Pharmacy examination unless the candidate secures at least 50% marks in each of the subjects in the theory examinations, including sessional marks respectively and at least 50% marks in each of the practical examinations including sessional marks. The curriculum of pharmacy gives you sufficient information regarding pharmacy makes an enriching learning experience as it perfectly combines technology and health care system. Talking about the environment, it depends on your perspective. If you are seeking to learn then not only securing passing marks would be easy but also you can expect good marks. The candidates securing 60% marks or above in aggregate of all subjects in a single attempt at the Diploma in Pharmacy (Part-I)/ (Part-II) examinations shall pass with first class. Candidates securing 75% marks or above in any subject or subjects are given distinction marks in the subject(s) provided that they pass in all the subjects in a single attempt. In the end, it all depends on your attitude and interest. If you’re not interested in pursuing your career in this, then it would not matter how much you put your effort it becomes a tough call to get passed. Otherwise, it would be enough good option for you if you see your future with Pharmacy.