Tod we will discuss HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET in the recent examinations. All the public service commissions and other government private and entrance examination are likely to follow the same pattern of OMR marking answering system for the evaluation. I think this is the best evaluation and one need to be very careful while filling up the form. So, We thought to publish an article on your favorite pharmawiki.in to help all the students and other aspirants to have a safe practice while attempting your examinations.
HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET – UPSC APPSC GPAT Exams
First let us start with a picture of Sample OMR sheet. Have a look at it keenly.
Sample OMR Sheet
INSTRUCTIONS for filling OMR Sheet
Fill boxes in BLUE/BLACK ball point pen only.
Darken the circles by BLUE/BLACK ball point pen only.
Do not write anything else on this OMR sheet.
Darken the circles only like this.
EXAMPLE: IF YOUR ROLL NO IS “06393” YOU MUST DARKEN AS SHOWN BELOW
SET CODE IS “D”
IF YOUR QUESTION SET CODE IS “D” YOU MUST DARKEN AS SHOWN BELOW
DATE OF BIRTH
IF YOUR DATE OF BIRTH IS 06/05/1997 YOU MUST DARKEN AS SHOWN BELOW
This is another important section for you to concentrate and do the work. You need to fill the bubble with right date of birth if not you may be out as it can be a reason for your disqualification in the examination you are giving right now for your better career prospects. So be careful while filling your entire OMR sheet.
IMPORTANT POINTS : 1. “SET CODE” -AS MENTIONED IN THE QUESTION PAPER. 2. 5 (FIVE) DIGIT WRITTEN ROLL NUMBER -AS MENTIONED IN PERFORMANCE -CUM-IDENTITY CARD 3. DATE OF BIRTH – As mentioned in the application form
I hope our article “HOW TO FILL AN OMR ANSWER SHEET – UPSC APPSC GPAT Exams” helped you to a small extent before you take up any offline competitive exams. This is a small guide to the instructions for filling the omr sheet without any mistake as our exams are very important to us. All the best my friends and I wish you all the very best for all your future endeavors. May God Bless.
Here Pharmawiki is presenting last day revision for all the aspirants of different pharmacist examinations like NAPLEX FPGEE OSPAP KAPS PEBC Pharmacist Exam. You can consider it as a Quick Revision on Pharmacology subject which will help you to qualify and score well in these examinations. This tiny Guide will surely help you to assess your exam preparation level.
NAPLEX FPGEE OSPAP KAPS PEBC Exam Quick Revision
1. venous ulcer treatment > exclude arteriopathy (eg ABPI), control oedema, prevent infection, compression bandaging. 2. Cushings – Diagnosis: 24hr urinary free cortisol. Addisons > short synacthen. 3. Rash on buttocks – Dermatitis herpetiformis (coeliac dx). 4. AF with TIA > Warfarin. Just TIA’s with no AF > Aspirin 5. Herpes encephalitis > temporal lobe calicification OR temporoparietal attentuation – subacute onset i.e. Several days. 6. Obese woman, papilloedema/headache > Benign Intercanial Hypertention. 7. Drug induced pneumonitis > methotrexate or amiodarone. 8. chest discomfort and dysphagia > achalasia. 9. foreign travel, macpap rash/flu like illnes > HIV acute. 10. cause of gout > dec urinary excretion. 11. bullae on hands and fragule SKIN torn by minor trauma > porphyria cutanea tarda. 12. Splenectomy > need pneumococcal vaccine AT LEAST 2 weeks preop and for life. 13. primary hrperparathyroidism > high Ca, normal/low PO4, normal/high PTH (in elderly). 14. middle aged man with KNEE arthritis > gonococcal sepsis (older people > Staph). 15. sarcoidosis, erythema nodosum, arthropathy > Loffgrens syndrome benign, no Rx needed. 16. TREMOR postural,slow progression,titubation, relieved by OH> benign essential TREMOR AutDom. (MS – titbation, PD – no titubation) 17. electrolytes disturbance causing confusion – low/high Na.
FPGEE | National Association of Boards of Pharmacy
18. contraindications lung Surgery > FEV dec bp 130/90, Ace inhibitors (if proteinuria analgesic induced headache. 21. 1.5 cm difference btwn kidneys > Renal artery stenosis > Magnetic resonance angiogram. 22. temporal tenderness> temporal arteritis > steroids > 90% ischaemic neuropathy, 10% retinal art occlusion. 23. severe retroorbital, daily headache, lacrimation > cluster headache. 24. pemphigus – involves mouth (mucus membranes), pemphigoid – less serious NOT mucosa. 25. diagnosis of polyuria > water deprivation test, then DDAVP. 26. insulinoma > 24 hr supervised fasting hypoglycaemia. 27. Diabetes Random >7 or if >6 OGTT (75g) > >11.1 also seen in HCT. 28. causes of villous atrophy: coeliac (lymphocytic infiltrate), Whipples , dec Ig, lymphoma, trop sprue (rx tetracycline). 29. diarrhoea, bronchospasm, flushing, tricuspid stenosis > gut carcinoid c liver mets. 3/5/2017 MRCP part 1 https://www.facebook.com/groups/51506029930/permalink/10155082909759931/ 2/5 30. hepatitis B with general deterioration > hepaocellular carcinoma. 31. albumin normal, total protein high > myeloma (hypercalcaemia, electrophoresis). 32. HBSag positive, HB DNA not detectable > chornic carier. 33. Inf MI, artery invlived > Right coronary artert.
NAPLEX Exam guide
34. Aut dom conditions: Achondroplasia, Ehler Danlos, FAP, FAMILIAL hyperchol,Gilberts, Huntington’s, Marfans’s, NFT I/II, Most porphyrias, tuberous sclerosis, vWD, PeutzJeghers. 35. X linked: Beck/Duch musc dyst, alports, Fragile X, G6PD, Haemophilia A/B. 36. Loud S1: MS, hyperdynamic, short PR. Soft S1: immobile MS, MR. 37. Loud S2: hypertension, AS. Fixed split: ASD. Opening snap: MOBILE MS, severe near S2. 38. HOCM/MVP inc by standing, dec by squating (inc all others). HOCM inc by valsalva, decs all others. Sudden death athlete, FH, Rx. Amiodarone, ICD. 39. MVP sudden worsening post MI. Harsh systolic murmur radites to axilla. 40. Dilated Cardiomyopathy: OH, bp, thiamine/selenium deficiency, MD, cocksackie/HIV, preg, doxorubicin, infiltration (HCT, sarcoid), tachycardia. 41. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy: sclerodermma, amyloid, sarcoid, HCT, glycogen storage, Gauchers, fibrosis, hypereosinophilia Lofflers, caracinoid, malignancy, radiotherapy, toxins. 42. Tumor compressing Respiratory tract > investigation: flow volume loop. 43. Guillan Barre syndrome: check VITAL CAPACITY. 44. Horners – sweating lost in upper face only – lesion proximal to common carotid artery. 45. Internuclear opthalmoplegia: medial longitudinal fasciculus connects CN nucleus 34. Ipsilateral adduction palsy, contralateral nystagmus. Aide memoire (TRIES TO YANK THE ipsilateral BAD eye ACROSS THE nose ). Convergence retraction nystagmus, but convergence reflex is normal. Causes: MS, SLE, Miller fisher, overdose(barb, phenytoin, TCA), Wernicke. 46. Progressive Supranuclear palsy: Steel Richardson. Absent voluntary downward gaze, normal dolls eye . i.e. Occulomotor nuclei intact, supranuclear Pathology .
The Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences (KAPS) Exam
47. Perinauds syndrome: dorsal midbrain syndrome, damaged midrain and superior colliculus: impaired upgaze (cf PSNP), lid retraction, convergence preserved. Causes: pineal tumor, stroke, hydrocephalus, MS. 48. demetia, gait abnormaily, urinary incontinence. Absent papilloedema> Normal pressure hydrocephalus. 49. acute red eye > acute closed angle glaucoma >> less common (ant uveitis, scleritis, episcleritis, subconjuntival haemmorrhage). 50. wheeles, URTICARIA , drug induced > aspirin. 3/5/2017 MRCP part 1 https://www.facebook.com/groups/51506029930/permalink/10155082909759931/ 3/5 51. sweats and weight gain > insulinoma. 52. diagnostic test for asthma > morning dip in PEFR >20%. 53. Causes of SIADH : chest/cerebral/pancreas Pathology , porphyria, malignancy, Drugs (carbamazepine, chlorpropamide, clofibrate, atipsychotics, NSAIDs, rifampicin, opiates) 54. Causes of Diabetes Insipidus: Cranial: tumor, infiltration, trauma Nephrogenic: Lithium, amphoteracin, domeclocycline, prologed hypercalcaemia/hypornatraemia, FAMILIAL X linked type 55. bisphosphonates:inhibit osteoclast activity, prevent steroid incduced osteoperosis (vitamin D also). 56.returned from airline flight, TIA> paradoxical embolus do TOE. 57. alcoholic, given glucose develops nystagmus > B1 deficiency (wernickes). Confabulation> korsakoff. 58. monoartropathy with thiazide > gout (neg birefringence). NO ALLOPURINOL for acute. 59. painful 3rd nerve palsy > posterior communicating artery aneurysm till proven otherwise 60 late complication of scleroderma > pumonaryhypertention plus/minus fibrosis. 61. causes of erythema mutliforme: lamotrigine 62. vomiting, abdominal pain, hypothyroidism > Addisonian crisis (TFT typically abnormal in this setting DO NOT give thyroxine). 63. mouth/genital ulcers and oligarthritis > behcets (also eye /SKIN lesions, DVT) 64. mixed drug overdose most important step > Nacetylcysteine (time dependent prognosis) 65. cavernous sinus syndrome 3rd nerve palsy, proptosis, periorbital swlling, conj injectn 66. asymetric parkinsons > likely to be idiopathic 67. Obese, NIDDM female with abnormal LFT’s > NASH (nonalcoholic steatotic hepatitis) 68. fluctuating level of conciousness in elderly plus/minus deterioration > chronic subdural. Can last even longer than 6 months 69. Sensitivity > TP/(TP plus FN) e.g. For SLE ANA highly sens, dsDNA:highly specific 70. RR is 8%. NNT is > 100/8 > 50/4 > 25/2 > 13.5
Australian Pharmacy Council
71. ipsilateral ataxia, Horners, contralateral loss pain/temp > PICA stroke (lateral medulary syndrome of Wallenburg) 72. renal stones (80% calcium, 10% uric acid, 5% ammonium (proteus), 3% other). Uric acid and cyteine stone are radioluscent. 73. hyperprolactinaemia (allactorrohea, amenorrohea, low FSH/LH) > Da antags (metoclopramide, chlorpromazine, cimetidine NOT TCA’s), pregnancy, PCOS, pit tumor/microadenoma, stress. 74. Distal, asymetric arthropathy > PSORIASIS 3/5/2017 MRCP part 1 https://www.facebook.com/groups/51506029930/permalink/10155082909759931/ 4/5 75. episodic headache with tachycardia > phaeochromocytoma 76. very raised WCC > ALWAYS think of leukaemia.
77. Diagnosis of CLL > immunophenotyping NOT cytogenetics, NOT bone marrow 78. Prognostic factors for AML > bm karyotype (good/poor/standard) >> WCC at diagnosis. 79. pancytopenia with raised MCV > check B12/folate first (other causes possble, but do this FIRST). Often associayed with phenytoin use > decreased folate 80. miscariage, DVT, stroke > LUPUS anticoagulant > lifelong anticoagulation 81. Hb elevated, dec ESR > polycythaemua (2ndry if paO2 low) 82. anosmia, delayed puberty > Kallmans syndrome (hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism) 83. diag of PKD > renal US even if think anorexia nervosa 85. commonest finding in G6PD hamolysis > haumoglobinuria 86. mitral stenosis: loud S1 (soft s1 if severe), opening snap.. Immobile valve > no snap.
PEBC Guide to Pharmacist
87. Flank pain, urinalysis:blood, protein > renal vein thrombosis. Causes: nephrotic syndrome, RCC, amyloid, acute pyelonephritis, SLE (atiphospholipid syndrome which is recurrent thrombosis, fetal loss, dec plt. Usual cause of cns manifestations assoc with LUPUS ancoagulant, anticardiolipin ab) 88. anaemia in the elderly assume GI malignancy 89. hypothermia, acute renal failure > rhabdomyolysis (collapse assumed) 90. pain, numbness lateral upper thigh > meralgia paraesthesia (lat cutaneous nerve compression usally by by ing ligament) 91. diagnosis of haemochromatosis: screen with Ferritin, confirm by tranferrin saturation, genotyping. If nondiagnostic do liver biopsy 0.3% mortality 92. 40 mg hidrocortisone divided doses (bd) > 10 mg prednisolone (ie. Prednislone is x4 stronger) 93. BTS: TB guidlines – close contacts > Heaf test > positive CXR, negative > repeat Heaf in 6 weeks. Isolation not required. 94. Diptheria > exudative pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, cardio and neuro toxicity. 95. Indurated plaques on cheeks, scarring alopecia, hyperkeratosis over hair follicles >> Discoid LUPUS 96. wt loss, malabsoption, inc ALP > pancreatic cancer 97. foreign travel, tender RUQ, raised ALP > liver abscess do U/S 98. wt loss, anaemia (macro/micro), no obvious cause > coeliac (diarrhoea does NOT have to be present) 99. haematuria, proteinuria, best investigation > if glomerulonephritis suspected > renal biopsy
100. Acromegaly – Diagnosis: OGTT followed by GH conc. 101. Malaria, incubation within 3/12. can be relapsing /remitting. Vivax and Ovale (West Africa) longer imcubation. 102. Fever, lymphadenopathy, lymphocytosis, pharygitis > EBV > heterophile antibodies 103. GI bleed after endovascular AAA Surgery > aortoenteric fistula
Getting Passed D. Pharmacy Course With Ease : As we know that Diploma in Pharmacy or D.Pharm program is a 2-year diploma course right after the class 12 boards. The reason why people choose to study D.Pharm is that it can get you a Pharmacy Shop License after completing the course with which you can run a private store. B. Pharm degree can also get you the license but then it takes 4 years of curriculum and definitely a depth of knowledge needed for serving multivariate job prospects in the Pharmaceutical sector. So for people who solely want to go for a career related to pharmacy marketing and business is ideal for studying D.Pharmacy. Also, the diploma course is convenient to pass in terms of other pharmacy degrees. The students grasp knowledge in subjects like biology, chemical industry, how to deal with plant drugs and some basic knowledge of chemistry. These include both practical as well as theoretical knowledge, to make the understanding and learning for the students interactive.
Pass D. Pharmacy Course With Ease
Though a minimum of 40 marks is needed out of 100 separately in theory and practical including sessional marks. Diploma in Pharmacy consists of subjects relatively the ones you need to spend quality time on. You have to have the concepts clear in the subject, and an urge to grasp knowledge and spend ample of hours on this. One shall not be declared to have passed Diploma in Pharmacy examination unless the candidate secures at least 50% marks in each of the subjects in the theory examinations, including sessional marks respectively and at least 50% marks in each of the practical examinations including sessional marks. The curriculum of pharmacy gives you sufficient information regarding pharmacy makes an enriching learning experience as it perfectly combines technology and health care system. Talking about the environment, it depends on your perspective. If you are seeking to learn then not only securing passing marks would be easy but also you can expect good marks. The candidates securing 60% marks or above in aggregate of all subjects in a single attempt at the Diploma in Pharmacy (Part-I)/ (Part-II) examinations shall pass with first class. Candidates securing 75% marks or above in any subject or subjects are given distinction marks in the subject(s) provided that they pass in all the subjects in a single attempt. In the end, it all depends on your attitude and interest. If you’re not interested in pursuing your career in this, then it would not matter how much you put your effort it becomes a tough call to get passed. Otherwise, it would be enough good option for you if you see your future with Pharmacy.
Let us discuss Percentage of Marks You Need To Maintain In M. Pharm Course: First of all let us gather some general idea about the degree course of Master of Pharmacy (M. Pharm). It is a 2 year post graduate course that trains the students imparting the knowledge of practical aspects of topics like industrial operations, instrumental techniques, research methodologies and emerging areas. In order to take admission to an M. Pharm course, you should have a B. Pharm degree from a PCI-approved institute and should have scored at least 55% marks over the 4 years of the graduate course. In M. Pharm course too, at the end of every semester candidates are to appear for examinations. At the end of last semester, the candidates also need to submit thesis. It offers specializations in subjects for which Post-graduate degree in pharmacy can be awarded by the Indian universities are as below:-
Infectious disease pharmacy.
Pharmaceutical Quality Assurance
Phytopharmacy & Phytomedicine
Medicinal chemistry and pharmacognosy
The other specialties can be prescribed by the Pharmacy Council of India from time to time.
The academic semester shall consist of a minimum of 15 weeks or tentative 90 instructional days. A minimum of 75% attendance in the theory and practical of each subject is compulsory for appearing at the external (university) examination. Now to clear the examination paper of any subject, candidates must obtain at least 40 percentage of the marks (including sessional marks) in theory and practical separately in each subject and in addition must obtain at least 50 percentage of the total marks (including sessional marks) assigned to the subject examination. To pass a subject, a candidate must appear in theory and practical at a time. For each internal (sessional) examination Twenty (20) marks shall be allotted and Eighty (80) marks for external (university) examination in theory and/or practical of each subject. The internal (sessional) marks in practical are allotted based on the actual performance in one internal (sessional) examination of 10 marks and attendance record, conduct, practical performance, laboratory records, viva, inclusive of another 10 marks. On the basis of average of all semester leading to award of the degree of M.Pharm the classes of percentage are determined. Percentage to be awarded is 70% or more for First class with Distinction. For percentage of 60% or more, but less than 70% the student gets First class and for 50% or more, but less than 60% it will be Second class. For the percentage below 50% are considered as Pass class.
Thus to maintain the M.Pharm course 50% of the marks are necessary. It’s obvious for a candidate to score high in the M.Pharm degree the students must work hard as it is a higher degree and it requires knowledge to become an expertise.
Here we provide DETAILS OF VACANCIES AT A GLANCE from Government of India Ministry of Railways. RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARDS are calling the Indian citizens for RECRUITMENT OF PARAMEDICAL CATEGORIES in different places of the country. Here in the below table we provide details like Name of the post Level as per 7th CPC, Initial Pay (Rs.), Medical standard along with the total number of Vacancies. A total number of 1937 posts are released by central government. You can check which suits for you and the ones you are eligible to decide and apply for these posts.
DIETICIAN will have the pay scale of 44900 and number of posts are 4 in number. STAFF NURSE pay scale will be 44900 and has 1109 posts. DENTAL HYGIENIST pay scale will be 35400 and DIALYSIS TECHNICIAN pay scale will be 35400 and has 20 posts centrally. EXTENSION EDUCATOR pay scale will be 35400 and there are 11 positions centrally. HEALTH and MALARIA INSPECTOR GRADE III pay scale will be 35400 with 289 posts national wide. LAB SUPERINTENDENT GRADE III pay scale will be 35400 and has 25 post. OPTOMETRIST pay scale will be 25500 and PERFUSIONIST 35400 pay scale will be but only one post is released. PHYSIOTHE-RAPIST pay scale will be 35400 and has 21 posts. PHARMACIST GRADE III 5 29200 pay scale, RADIOGRAPHER 29200 , SPEECH THERAPIST 29200 , ECG TECHNICIAN 4 25500 , LADY HEALTH VISITOR 25500 LAB ASSISTANT GRADE II pay scale 21700.
PHARMACIST Exam : Every year government conduct exams for PHARMACIST to fill out the vacant post in various hospital and other departments under government. Do you want to crack Government Pharmacist & RRB Pharmacist examination. Then First find your own deep and compelling reason to successfully learn your subject and pass your exams. This really is the most important of the study tips I shall share with you here because your success will be deeply rooted in your motivation to learn. Many kids at school do not want to be there and can’t be bothered to try which is often why they fail. It does not mean that they are unable to learn, it just means that they have not applied themselves to the work at hand. I know that this is often true because I have met literally hundreds of people who “failed” at school by conventional standards yet later in life made the decision to go back to studying a subject because they wanted to do it. And because of their motivation to succeed the did. So what does that mean to you? Well understand that you are driven by emotional needs and not necessarily logical ones. If we were driven by logic, the world would be a much better place. So you have to find a deep emotional reason for achieving success as a student. And if you can dig deep and find that reason then nothing will stop you because you will find a way.
Government PHARMACIST Exam Pattern:
Now can discuss about general Exam Pattern of Government Pharmacist & RRB Pharmacist. Pharmacist exam paper contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions each question carrying 1 marks, with a duration of 2 hour. Question type: MCQ’s Questions : 200 Marks: 200 Duration: 2 hours Sr.No. Test Components No.of Questions i) General Awareness — 20 ii) Gen. Intelligence and reasoning Ability — 20 iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability — 20 iv) Test of General Science — 20 v) Test of Language English/Hindi — 20 vi) Subject-related questions — 100
General Awareness: Students should be updated with all the current affairs and general knowledge topics.
General knowledge by Arihant
NCERT Text books from class 6 to 10
Economics by ramesh singh
Geography Of india by khullar
Science and technology by spectrum
Polity for UPSC by laximikant
Arithmetic: This section is very scoring since the only concern with this section is practice. If students practice hard for this section they can surely score high. S Chand Arithmetic:
Pharmacy: This section includes questions from technical courses which students opted for.
Reasoning: You can scorte more than your competitors ion this session if you practice more. Time is main factor in this. Practice Verbal & nonverbal Reasoning R.S. Aggarwal . Students should go according to syllabus while preparing and practicing RRB mock test.
PHARMACIST Exam Preparation Books
I think you know the importance of this subject in our Pharmaceutical sciences. If you prepare well and thorough in this subject I assure you will definitely clear 50 60 percent of the subject. So concenterate more on this subject. You will cover pharmaceutical chemistry along with these.
Study these Pharmacology books:
Essentials o f medical Pharmacology by KD Tripathi , Pharmacology by Rang and Dale : Let me tell you what to study here and how to study.
Prepare important chapters first. Like CVS drugs, antibiotics, anticancer, CNS DRUGS, Hypoglycemic drugs , hypnotics, NSAIDs, hypertension.
Concentrate on classifications and mechanism of action. Antidotes, specific severe side effects, vaccines should never be left unstudied. Don’t forget Drug interactions.
List of Important topics for RRB Pharmacist 2019 exam
A Textbook of Forensic Pharmacy – B M Mithal Concentrate mainly on SCHEDULES.
Next important are YEARS. TOPICS TO COVER FOR RRB in JURISPRUDENCE
(Dont take more time for this subject but have a clear idea on all the years and numbers
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic substances Act, and Rules there under
Shops and Establishment Act
Introduction to Intellectual Property Rights and Indian Patent Act 1970
Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954 and Rules
Industrial Development and Regulation act 1951
Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act 1954
Historical background Drug legislation
The Pharmacy Act 1948
Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, Rules 1945, including New Drug applications
Consumer Protection Act
Indian Pharmaceutical Industry- An Overview
Drug (Price Control) Order
RRB Government Pharmacist EXAM Material:
Read and practice good competitive exam books ion the market without fail. Gpat books will help you more . Previous exam papers should be solved without any haste.
You can now read Piyush GPAT books and Inamdar guide for GPAT for subject paper preparation. This will help you to identify important topics and questions as you give a one time reading. Next turn you will understand what to be stressed more.
RRB Previous Papers for Central Government Pharmacist Exam Material
As every one know Previous papers will help you a lot in your successful exam. You need to do all the years RRB Pharmacist Previous papers along with other government pharmacist exams at this time. This is peak time and you should know how to work smart here. You can now download RRB Pharmacist previous questions papers along with answers PDF as solved RRB pharmacist exam.
RRB PHARMACIST General PAPER BEST BOOKS
Discussed in the first section of this article please refer.
Crack Government Pharmacist Exam with our Support – You must read this to get success
1. Find your own deep and compelling reason to successfully learn your subject and pass your exams. This really is the most important of the study tips I shall share with you here because your success will be deeply rooted in your motivation to learn. Many kids at school do not want to be there and can’t be bothered to try which is often why they fail. It does not mean that they are unable to learn, it just means that they have not applied themselves to the work at hand. I know that this is often true because I have met literally hundreds of people who “failed” at school by conventional standards yet later in life made the decision to go back to studying a subject because they wanted to do it. And because of their motivation to succeed the did. So what does that mean to you? Well understand that you are driven by emotional needs and not necessarily logical ones. If we were driven by logic, the world would be a much better place. So you have to find a deep emotional reason for achieving success as a student. And if you can dig deep and find that reason then nothing will stop you because you will find a way. 2. Plan your time to include study, revision and social commitments – a balance of having fun, taking breaks and studying is vital. Balance is very important to have a successful and rewarding life and the same is true when you are a student. OK you could spend every waking hour reading every book you could find and learning everything you could and yes you would pass your exams provided you had not burnt out. But it would not be fun, you would have no friends and you would definitely be out of balance. Taking appropriate breaks and giving yourself little rewards when you have finished an essay or learnt something new for your exams is vital for your success. This is because it keeps you in balance and gives you a degree of variety that keeps you fresh and alert. Yes having a night out with your friends is good for you – but only if it is as a reward for doing good work and is as part of your overall plan. 3. Use multi-coloured Mind Maps for your notes. My friend and mentor Tony Buzan developed the most powerful thinking tool ever (and I am not exaggerating here) when he invented the Mind Map. Imagine being able to get the key facts from an entire book on a single page in a way that was not only easy to remember but would stay in your memory for as long as you wanted it. Imagine having a thinking tool that allowed you to prepare essays and assignments in a fraction of the time than you do at the moment AND have them much better. Imagine being able to give a powerful hour long presentation from a single page of colourful notes that you put together in about 10 minutes. Well all these are possible with the Mind Map. It is an amazing tool that combines the power of association, the fact that we have a very strong visual processing mechanism and that it combines right and left brain processing. I have seen what Mind Maps can do for students of all ages and all abilities and if I had my way it would be a compulsory tool taught to kids from a very young age. 4. Review your notes regularly to reinforce your new-found knowledge. This is another very simple but extremely powerful tip for you. The experience of most students is that the learning that takes place in the classroom is really an information gathering exercise. When it comes to revising for their exams at the end of the year they go to their notes and often can’t remember ever seeing that information before. They know they must have because the notes are in their handwriting but they can’t remember anything! So the preparation for exams becomes a re-learning exercise. This study tip is so simple and powerful yet most will not bother. If at the end of every day, every week and every month you quickly scanned what you have learnt, made a few key word notes and then reviewed those ultra-condensed notes regularly, you would be amazed at how much you could remember. This only need take 10 minutes at the end of the day, half an hour at the end of the week and maybe an hour or two at the end of the month. Each time you review what you have learnt, even in condensed key word format, it is more deeply engrained in your memory. 5. Swiftly skim through your text books and course material before you read them in depth to give you an overview of your subject. Now there is not enough space here to explain why this tip is important because it is a fundamental part of learning how to read faster and absorb more information. Just trust me on this one and before you start reading, skim through your book (no more than 10 minutes) to get a feel for the contents. As you read in greater depth later on, some of what you have got from the quick scan will help put into context that information and allow you to make the necessary links in your mind and memory. Doing this will often stop you from getting stuck at any point because you will have a flavour of what is to come later in the book and this added preview can help the understanding of earlier information. 6. Learn how to remember lists of things by linking each item to a location on a journey or route you are familiar with around your town. You could even use your own home. At some point, once you have understood your subject, you will need to be able to memorise it. Many people think that just understanding it is enough to learn it but unfortunately that is not the case and so some memorization is necessary. The most powerful way of doing this is to create a “filing system” in your mind. One way to do this is to create a little journey in your imagination (it can be a real place or you can make it up). See for example the chair, the bed, the TV, the door and the window in your bedroom. If you wanted to remember a sequence of items you would link an outrageous (and therefore memorable) picture to each location. To recall the information, simply revisit the journey in your own mind and “see” the information in the silly pictures you have created. 7. Before you do any revision, warm up by doing some gentle exercise to relieve any tension in your body and to get a rush of healthy oxygen flowing to your brain. There is a saying – “a healthy body, a healthy mind” – and nowhere is this more true than when it comes to learning. Two things happen when you physically warm up before studying. First of all you get rid of any physical tension that will create stress in the body and mind (not good for learning) and secondly you will get a rush of oxygen to the brain which will help you think more clearly (definitely good for learning). 8. Do past papers under thorough exam conditions as often as possible to familiarize yourself with the format and the pressures of working under exam conditions. If you are training in a sport or practicing a musical instrument, you will practice the plays or rehearse the pieces for the big day. It would not make sense to spend months doing push ups and then turn up on the big day and expect to play soccer really well. It would also be unwise to only practice scales on your instrument and then when the big performance comes up expect a perfect recital. So the same is true of exams. Fortunately these days you can get hold of past exam papers from previous years. Do these, under the same exam conditions, over and over again so that when the big day comes you will have exam experience under your belt. Doing this will give you more confidence, much better exam techniqe and an insight into how the examiners for your subject think. Remember practice makes perfect. 9. In an exam, make sure you read the question completely and fully understand what the examiner wants before you allocate your time and begin answering the questions. This is commonsense but you would be amazed at how many people do not do this. Take your time, plan what you are going to write and then write it. 10. If you are faced with a mental block breathe deeply, relax and ask yourself “If I did know the answer to this question, what would it be?” This might sound silly but if you do it with a positive expectation that your very powerful subconcious will give you the answer, then you will be amazed at what comes to mind. The combination of the breathing, relaxation and expectation is the key. Of course you have had to have done the preparation beforehand because this won’t work with information that you have not previously learnt or covered in class. So there you have my top 10 tips. Each are very powerful and just doing one of them will make a big difference to your success…but if you do all 10…Wow!
Information regarding D Pharma & B Pharma Entrance Examination in different states and universities in India are provided here
D Pharmacy Entrance exams List
Pharmacy is the science that deals with the preparation of drugs and its dosages. Currently, studying pharmacy courses are one of the top choices opted by students across the country. After engineering and medical, the most sought-after courses after Intermediate is none other than pharmacy. Those who have completed their class 12th exam with Physics, Chemistry and Biology / Mathematics are eligible for D. Pharmacy courses. The exam is held for those candidates who want to get admission in the polytechnic course of pharmacy called Diploma in Pharmacy which comes under the undergraduate course. A number of entrance examinations are conducted by the Central and the State Govt for pursuing D. Pharm course. Thus the applicants are required to clear any of the national, state or university level examinations organized by the respective authorities. One can expect the exams very competitive as millions of students appear to prove their merit through these entrance tests. Generally, these exams are scheduled after class 12 boards.
List of B Pharmacy Entrance Examination
In India, various universities and colleges offer D. Pharmacy, B. Pharmacy, M. Pharmacy programs along with other courses in this field. The colleges where one can pursue Pharmacy programs vary from Govt colleges, private and aided institutions. After the entrance examinations, the seats of these colleges are filled up according to the national and state ranks of the students. The best colleges in the country take up the highest ranking students. This is because the main purpose of the Pharmacy Entrance Exams is to select the most capable candidates amongst the other to grant enrolment into the Pharmacy colleges all over the country. Below are the names of the entrance examinations conducted by the different bodies of the state, national and university level.
B Pharmacy & D Pharmacy Entrance Examination List
WBJEE Pharmacy (West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination Pharmacy)
UPSEE Pharmacy (Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination Pharmacy)
UP-CPMT (Uttar Pradesh Combined Pre Medical Test)
NMAT-P (SVKM’S Narsee Monjee Institute Of Management Studies (NMIMS), Mumbai)
AU AIMEE (Annamalai University All India Medical Entrance Exam)
Punjab MBBS (Punjab MBBS/BDS Admissions)
Rajasthan MBBS (Rajasthan MBBS/BDS Admissions)
RPET Pharmacy (Board Of Technical Education, Rajasthan)
PUNJAB CET (Punjab Technical University,Jalandhar)
KLEU-AIET (KLE University All India Entrance Test)
Bihar MBBS (Bihar MBBS/BDS Admissions)
BITSAT Degree (BITS Admission Test)
MT CET Pharmacy (Maharashtra Pharmacy Common Entrance Test)
GAT UGTP (Gitam Admission Test)
CENTAC JET Pharmacy (Government Of Puducherry Centralized Admission Committee)
GUJCET Pharmacy (Gujarat Common Entrance Test Pharmacy)
VYAPAM PEPT (Madhya Pradesh Professional Examination Board, MP)
EAMCET Pharmacy (Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test)
OLET (Haryana State Counseling Society OLET)
TNPCEE (Tamilnadu Professional Courses Entrance Examination)
The students carrying interest in chemistry and bio-medical subjects can opt for Pharmacy courses after completing their 12th or equivalent exam. Still before opting for these programs students going through the career counselling will be the best method to choose the field of interest. That would help him/her in future aspects of career and towards the contribution in society as well.
Hope you would find this article useful for those who are sarching for Information regarding D Pharma & B Pharma Entrance Examination in different states and universities in India.
Here is a great article for our readers especially D Pharmacy 1st Year B Pharm First Sem students who are struggling to learn Anatomy & Physiology Subjects. Hence we provide Notes as Solved Question Paperwhich are very important for your examinations.
Give functions of mitochondria & endoplasmic reticulum. (1 mark each)
Mitochondria is known as power house of cell. They are involved in cellular respiration, the process by which chemical energy is made available in the cell. When nutrients and oxygen come in contact with the oxidative enzymes of mitochondria, they combine to form CO2, water & energy, this is in the form of ATP. (aerobic oxidation)
Endoplasmic reticulum are of two types. Smooth and rough. Smooth ER synthesizes lipids and steroid hormones and associated with detoxification of drugs. Rough ER is studded with ribosomes. It is a site of synthesis of proteins that are exported from
iii) White fibrous tissue iv) Yellow elastic tissue
Specialised connective tissue: i) Bone ii) Cartilage
Vascular tissue: i) Blood ii) Lymphoid tissue
c) What are true ribs & false ribs? ( 2 marks)
There are 12 pairs of ribs. Anteriorly, the first seven pairs of ribs are attached to the sternum via costal cartilage & are known as true ribs. The next three ribs are attached indirectly via seventh rib & known as false ribs
d) Write composition of blood. (2 marks)
It is composed of a liquid matrix plasma (55%) & different cells suspended in it (45%).
SA node(sinoatrial node) This is small mass of specialized neuromuscular cells in the walls of myocardium of right atrium near the opening of the superior vena cava. It is known as pacemaker of the heart as it initiates the impulses.
AV node- (atrioventricular node): This is the mass of neuromuscular cells in the wall of the atrial septum near the AV valves. Normally it conducts the impulses that are originated by SA node. It is known as secondary pace maker as it generates the impulses when there is problem with SA node.
g) Give the functions of CSF. (4 functions, 2 marks)
To support & protect brain & spinal
Maintain uniform pressure around
Acts as cushion & shock absorber
Keeps brain & spinal cord
h) Define (any two) (each 1 mark)
Presbyopia: As a process of aging, the lens loses its elasticity; the distant objects are seen clear but close objects are
Cataract: This is opacity of lens which may be age related or congenital bilateral or unilateral.
Hypermetropia: Also known as farsightedness. Far vision is normal but close vision is blurred, because the near image is focused behind the retina as eye ball length is too short or due to flattened
i) Write the functions of hypothalamus. ( 2 marks)
It controls the hormone release from pituitary
Control of autonomic nervous system, appetite & satiety, thirst, body , emotions, sexual behavior & biological clock.
j) Name any two cranial nerves with their function. (Any 2, 2 marks)
Olfactory – sense of smell
Optic – sense of light/vision
Occulomotor – movement of the eyeball, change shape of lens, Constriction of pupil, raising the upper lid.
Trochlear – movement of the eye
Trigeminal – receives impulses of pain temp. & touch for face & head, stimulates muscle of mastication
Abducent – abduction of eye ball
Facial – conveys impulse from taste buds & supplies muscles of facial expression
Auditory (vestibulocochlear) – conveys impulses to the cerebellum for posture &
Balance & sense of hearing
Glossopharyngeal – Sense of taste, production of saliva and movement of
Vagus – Secretion, movement in organs
Accessory – Movements of head, shoulder, pharynx and larynx
Hypoglossal – Supplies to the muscle of tongue & muscle surrounding the hyoid bone & helps in swallowing & speech.
k) What are auditory ossicles? (1 mark) Write their function. (1 mark)
Auditory ossicles: Malleus, incus & stapes are the three small bones in the middle ear extending from tympanic membrane to the oval window. Sound vibrations of tympanic membrane are amplified & transmitted by these bones.
l) What is B.P.? Name the factors affecting B.P. (def 1 mark and any 4 factors 1 mark)
B.P is the force or lateral pressure which the blood exerts on the wall of blood vessels. Factors affecting B.P. are exercise, nutrition, age, stress, circulating hormones, autonomic nervous system activity.
Q2. Solve any four of the following: 12
Define respiration. Write the process of external respiration. (def 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)
Respiration is a process of supply of oxygen present in atmosphere into the body & excretion for carbon dioxide.
External respiration- (cycle of breathing)
The normal human has 12-15 breath per min. Each breath consists of inspiration, expiration & pause.
Inspiration: The simultaneous contraction of intercostal muscles & diaphragm increases the capacity of thoracic cavity. This reduces the pressure in the lungs. To equalise the pressure the air from atmosphere enters the lungs. The process of inspiration is active as it needs energy for muscle contraction. It lasts for 2 sec.
Expiration: Relaxation of intercostal muscles & diaphragm results in decrease in the space in the lungs. As a result, the pressure inside the lungs increases as compared to atmospheric pressure. The air from the lungs is expelled from the lungs. This process is passive as does not require energy. The expiration lasts for 3 sec. After expiration there is pause & then the next cycle begins.
b) Write steps involved in urine formation. Describe selective reabsorption. (steps 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)
There are three processes of urine formation:
Selective reabsorption is the process by which the composition and volume of the glomerular filtrate is altered during its passage through the convoluted tubules, Loop of Henle and the collecting tubule. The purpose of this process is to reabsorb those constituents of the filtrate which are essential to the body, maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance and the alkalinity of blood.
Some constituents of the glomerular filtrate e.g. glucose; vitamins and amino acids get completely reabsorbed into the blood. These substances are called high- threshold substances.
Low-threshold substances like urea, uric acid are absorbed slightly.
Some substances e.g. creatinine are not at all absorbed.(no-threshold substances) Parathormone from parathyroid gland & calcitonin from thyroid gland regulate reabsorption of calcium & phosphate,
ADH from posterior pituitary increases the permeability of the tubule & increases water reabsorption.
Aldosterone by adrenal cortex increases reabsorption of sodium.
c)What is muscle tone? Give the functions of muscle. (muscle tone 1 mark, functions 2 marks)
Muscle tone is a sustained partial muscle contraction that allows maintenance of posture of the body.
Functions of the muscles are-
Skeletal muscles contract & help the movement of the body & stability of the joint. It also helps in generation of heat.Intercostal muscles help in respiration.
Smooth muscles helps contraction & relaxation of blood vessels & controls blood flow & movement of the food in the alimentary
Cardiac muscles help in the functioning of
d)Give the composition & function of gastric juice. (comp. 1 mark, functions 2 marks)
Composition of gastric juice:
Water, mineral salt, mucus, HCl, intrinsic factor, pepsinogen Functions of gastric juice-
Water liquifies the food.
HCl acidifies the food & stops the action of salivary
HCl kills the
Pepsinogen is activated to pepsin by HCl. This digests protein to smaller
Intrinsic factor absorbs vit. B12 from small
Mucus prevents mechanical injury to the stomach
e) Name hormones of adrenal cortex & mention their functions. (names 1 mark, functions 2 marks)
Adrenal cortex produces three groups of hormones namely glucocorticoids, Mineralocorticoid & androgens.
Glucocorticoids: Cortisol or hydrocortisone is the main glucocorticoid. Others are corticosterone & cortisone.
They regulate metabolism like gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis. Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone.) It regulates water & electrolyte balance. It increases the reabsorption of Na ions.
Androgens: The compounds secreted are insignificant to show any action.
f) Define reproduction. Name the different reproductive organs of male reproductive system. (def 1 mark, organs 2 marks)
Reproduction is the process of formation of offspring OR It is defined as process by which genetic material is passed from one generation to another & thus maintains continuation of species.
The male reproductive system consists of the following organs:
Urethra & Penis
Q3. Solve any four of the following: 12
Give differences between striated and smooth muscles. (any 6 points, 3 marks)
It is also known as striated Muscle
Non‐ striated muscle
It is less extensible
It is more extensible
The fibres (cell) are cylindrical and has
The cells are spindle shaped
with only one central nucleus
They are under the control of our will. (voluntary)
They are not under the
control of our will.(involuntary)
The fibrous tissue enclosing
the whole muscle extends beyond the fibres to become the tendon which attaches the muscle to the bone or skin.
Bundles of fibres form sheets of muscle.
There is distinct sarcolemma
No distinct sarcolemma
Present in tongue, arms or hands, legs,
Present in oesophagus, stomach,
b) Define: ( 1 mark each)
Gout: Inflammation of joints due to deposition of sodium urate crystals in the joints.
Arthritis: Chronic disease that results in pain and restricted movement of
Sprain: Joint injury in which some of the fibres of supporting ligament are damaged OR If a ligament is stretched or torn; the injury is called a
c) Name different type of blood group. Explain the term universal donor and universal recipient. (name 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)
Different blood groups are: A, B, AB and O
Blood group “O” is called as Universal donor and Blood group “AB” is called as
Individuals have different antigens on the surface of their RBCs. These antigens determine their blood groups.
Blood group ‘O’ has neither A nor B antigen on their cell membrane. There will be no agglutination and thus blood can be safely transfused into A, B, AB and O. but can receive from only O.Therefore, blood group O is called universal donor.
Whereas blood group AB has neither antiA nor antiB antibodies. Transfusion of any group into these individuals is safe since there are no antibodies to react with them. But can donate only to AB. Hence it is called as universal recipient.
d) Define cardiac cycle. Write various events in cardiac cycle. (def 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)
Cardiac cycle: The events which occur in the heart during the circulation of blood during each heart beat is called cardiac cycle OR The series of events during one heart beat is known as cardiac cycle.
Events in cardiac cycle:
Atrial systole (0.1 sec)
Ventricular systole (0.3 sec)
Complete cardiac diastole (0.4 sec)
Description of cardiac cycle (2 marks)
The superior & inferior vena cava transport the deoxygenated blood into right atrium. At the same time four pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood into the left atrium. The impulses from the SA node spreads over the atria, atria contracts, the AV valves open and & blood flows to ventricles. ( atrial systole-0.1 sec)
When the wave of contraction reaches AV node, it is stimulated & emits impulses which spreads over AV bundle, bundle branches & purkinje fibres resulting in contraction of ventricles pumping the blood into pulmonary artery & the aorta. (ventricular systole 0.3 sec). After the contraction of the ventricles there is complete cardiac diastole(0.4 sec) when both atria & ventricles relax. After this the next cycle begins.
e) What is reflex action? Draw a well-labelled diagram of reflex arc. (Reflex action 1 ½ marks, diagram 1 ½ marks)
Reflex action is an automatic motor response given by the spinal cord to the sensory stimulus without involving brain in action. They are a part of defensive mechanisms of the body.
Important reflex actions are:
Quick closing of an eyelid if eye is
Sudden withdrawal of hand if fingers touch something
Quick recovery of the balance of the body to prevent falling after a
Sudden coughing attack if a food particle is
Diagram of reflex arc:
f) Mention layers of epidermis of skin. State functions of skin. ( names of layers 1 mark, any 4 functions 2 marks)
Layers of epidermis:
Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum and stratum granulosum & stratum germinativum Functions of skin:
Protection – It forms the water proof layer & protects the inner delicate structures. It acts as the barrier against the invasion of the microbes, chemicals &dehydration. The melanin pigment protects against the harmful UV
Regulation of body temp.- The temp. is constant at 36.8o When the metabolic rate of the body increases the body temp increases & vice versa. To ensure constant body temp, a balance between heat production & heat loss is maintained by the skin.
Formation of vit. D.- 7-dehydroxycholesterol is present in the skin. The UV light from the sun converts it to vit.
Sensation – It contains nerve endings of many sensory nerves which act as organ of sensation of touch, temp, pressure and
Absorption- Some drugs & chemicals are absorbed through the
Excretion- Skin is a minor excretory organ & excretes NaCl, urea & sub. like garlic.
Q4. Solve any four of the following: 12
Define and give normal values: (1 mark for each)
Tidal volume: It is the volume of air moved in & out of lungs during normal breathing. Normal value is 500
Inspiratory reserve volume: It is the amount of air that can be breathed in and above the tidal volume by the deepest possible inspiration. Normal value is 1800 – 3000
Residual volume: It is the volume of air remaining in lungs after forced Normal value is 1.2 L in males and 1.1 L in females.
Give physiology of neuromuscular transmission. ( 3 marks)
When a nerve impulse reaches neuromuscular junction, passage of action potential over the sole feet causes the vesicles of acetylcholine to rupture into the synaptic cleft. The acetylcholine acts on the cell membrane to increase its permeability.
This allows spontaneous leakage of Na causing endplate potential. When the endplate potential increases, it stimulates the entire muscle fibre causing an action potential to travel in both directions along the fibre. When the action potential spread to inside of muscle fibre then Ca ions are released. This causes contraction of muscle fibres. Immediately after action potential is over, the previously released Ca ions recombine with reticulum and the muscle contraction stops.
The enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the synaptic cleft. causes hydrolysis of acetylcholine. The muscle fibre is repolaised again to receive successive stimuli.
d) Describe the structure of stomach. ( str 2 marks, diag 1 mark)
Stomach is a J-shaped dilated portion of the alimentary canal. It is continuous with the oesophagus at cardiac sphincter and with duodenum at pyloric sphincter. It has 2 curvatures – lesser curvature and greater curvature. The stomach is divided into three regions- fundus, body & antrum. There are three layers of smooth muscle fibres outer longitudinal, the middle circular layer & the inner oblique fibres. This helps the churning movement & peristaltic movement.
e) What is endocrine and exocrine gland? Name the endocrine glands. (each def 1 mark, any 4 endocrine glands 1 mark)
Endocrine glands are ductless glands which release their secretions (hormones) directly into the blood.
Exocrine gland: The glands that discharge their secretions through the duct are known as exocrine glands.
Endocrine glands: Pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, pancreas (islets of Langerhans). adrenal glands, pineal gland, testes in male and ovaries in female.
Menstruation: This is the series of events occurring regularly in females every 26-30 days throughout the child bearing age. The cycle consists of menstrual phase for 4 days, proliferative phase for 10 days & secretary phase for 14 days.
Proliferative phase: It is characterized by release of oestrogen by the maturing ovarian follicle under the influence of FSH from the anterior pituitary. Oestrogen stimulates the proliferation of the endometrium in preparation of the fertilized ovum. The endometrium becomes thicker by rapid cell multiplication and this is accompanied by an increase in the number of mucus-secreting glands and blood capillaries. This phase lasts for 10 days and stops when ovulation occurs and oestrogen production is inhibited i.e. when the ovarian follicle ruptures.
Q.5 Solve any four of the following: (12 marks, 03 marks each)
State the factors which accelerate and retard the clotting of blood. (3 marks, 1.5 marks each)
There are various factors which accelerate and retard the clotting of blood.
(1) Factors accelerating clotting are( any 3 points, 1.5 marks)
During menstruation and parturition
Injury to the walls of the blood vessels: An injury in the form of cut bleeds more freely than the injury by the
The venom of viper snakes
Higher temperature (above 46 0 C)
Presence of calcium salts
(2) Factors retarding clotting are (any 3 points, 1.5 marks):
In clinical condition like haemophilia, liver disease, afibrinogenemia, Christmas disease,
Removal calcium ions from the blood by addition of sodium or potassium or citrate
(c ) Calcium deficiency in blood
(d)Lower temperature: However, lower temperature causes contraction of blood vessels. ( e)Deficiency of vitamin K
(b) Describe how circulation of blood takes place through heart chambers. (3 marks)
The superior vena cava (for upper body) and inferior vena cava (for lower body) receive deoxygenated /impure blood from various part of the body through different veins. This deoxygenated/ impure blood they pour into the right atrium of heart. The blood from right atrium enters the right ventricle through a tricuspid valve, which prevent back flow of blood from ventricle into atrium.
The deoxygenated/ impure blood from right ventricle is forced into pulmonary artery through pulmonary valve. The pulmonary arteries divide into two branches each enters the right and left lungs. In the lungs, the red blood cells (RBCs) release carbon dioxide and absorbs oxygen. This oxygenated blood from right and left lungs is collected by four pulmonary veins and poured into left atrium. From left atrium this blood enters into left ventricle through bicuspid valve which prevents back flow of blood into left atrium.This oxygenated blood from left ventricle is forced into the aorta through aortic valve which prevent back flow of blood into left ventricle.
Give the various functions of medulla oblongata. (03 marks, 1mark for each function The vital centres consisting of group of cells associated with autonomic reflex activity lie in Medulla oblongata. They are,
Cardiac centre– The cardiac centre controls the rate and force of cardiac contraction and blood
Respiratory centre – The respiratory centre controls the rate and depth of respiration. Nerve impulses pass to the phrenic and intercostal muscles which stimulate the contraction of diaphragm and intercostal muscles, thus initiating
Vasomotor centre – This controls the diameter of blood vessels especially small arteries and arterioles.
Reflex centre – When irritating substance are present in stomach or respiratory tract, nerve impulse pass on to the medulla oblongata stimulating the reflex centre which initiate reflex actions like vomiting, sneezing and
(d) Explain retina of eye. (3marks)
Retina is the innermost layer of the eye. It gets stimulated by the light rays. It is composed of several layers of nerve cell body & the axons. There are light sensitive cells mainly of two types: the rods and
The entire retina contains about 7 million cones and 75 to 150 million
Rods function mainly in dim light and provide black-and-white vision, The rods have rhodopsin or visual purple is photosensitive pigment. It gets bleached with light & gets regenerated by vit. A. The rods are present more in the periphery of the
Cones sensitive to bright light & colour. cone opsins (also known as photopsins or iodopsin) present in cone cells, are used in colour
The central retina has macula lutea or yellow spot made up of only cone cells. It has central depression called fovea centralis.All the nerve fibres of retina form the optic nerve. The small area of the retina where the optic nerve leave the eye is known as optic disc or blind spot as no light sensitive cells are present here.
(e) Define nephritis. Give function of kidney. (Definition 1 mark, any 4 functions 2 marks)
Nephritis: Nephritis refers to inflammation of one or both kidneys due to infection or autoimmune disease.
Functions of kidney are:
Formation of urine –Each kidney consist of nephron which filter waste product from blood & helps in urine ,
Maintenance of acid base balance it helps maintaining pH by excretion of H+ ions & reabsorption of HCO3–
Maintenance of electrolyte balance
Maintenance of blood pressure. it regulates B.P. by Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone system
Maintenance of water Balance.it helps in maintaining water balance with the help of
Formation of erythropoietin hormone for erythropoeisis
(f) Define (3 marks, 1 mark for each definition)
Mastication: It is the process by which food is chewed and mixed with saliva to form a soft mass or bolus which is swallowed. ORMastication means chewing process takes place in mouth cavity.
Chyme: The thick semisolid mass of partially digested food that is passed from the stomach to the
ii) Digestion: The conversion of complex food ( carbohydrate , proteins & fats) into simpler form (glucose, amino acids & fatty acid) by mechanical breakdown & chemical digestion so that it is easily absorbed into the blood and utilized for energy.
Q.6 Solve any four of the following: (16 marks, 4 marks each)
State eight (8) functions of liver. (0.5 marks for each function)
Functions of liver
Secretion of bile: Bile salts are helpful in digestion and absorption of fats by its emulsification.
Glycogenic function: The hepatic cells by the action of enzymes convert glucose into glycogen and it is then stored in the
Formation of urea: Hepatic cells by the action of the enzyme cause deamination of amino acid, i.e. amine group is set free which forms
Metabolism of fat: Whenever energy is needed, the saturated stored fat is converted to a form in which it can be used to provide
Formation of RBCs in foetal
Destruction of RBCs forming bile pigments and
Formation of plasma
Formation of heparin, a natural anticoagulant in the
Storage of iron and vitamin B
Maintenance of body temperature: As a number of chemical reactions occur in the liver, heat is generated which is helpful in maintaining body
Excretion of toxic substances: The toxic substances entering the body through alimentary canal are destroyed in
Carbohydrate metabolism: It helps in maintaining plasma glucose level with the help of insulin &
Fat metabolism: Stored fat can be converted to a form in which it can be used by the tissue to provide
Protein metabolism: Deamination of amino -removes nitrogenous portion from amino acid not required for formation of new protein. Urea is formed from the nitrogenous portion which is excreted in urine. Break down of nucleic acids to form uric acid which is excreted in urine. Transamination: Removes the nitrogenous portion of amino acid & attaches it to carbohydrate molecule forming new non-essential amino acid. .
Synthesis of plasma protein & most blood clotting factors from amino
Breakdown of RBCs & defense against This is carried out by Kupffer cells.
Detoxification of drugs & noxious
Inactivation of hormones
Production of heat
Secretion of bile
Storage of glycogen, iron, copper, & water fat soluble vit-A, D,E, K, soluble vit. Like B12.
(b) What is hepatic portal circulation? Give its importance. (4marks; circulation 3 marks, importance 1 mark)
The portal circulation (3 marks)
In all parts of the body, the venous blood passes from the tissues to the heart by the direct route.
But, in the portal circulation, venous blood from the capillary bed of the abdominal parts, the spleen & the pancreas passes to the liver via the portal vein. The portal vein is formed by union of gastric vein from stomach, superior & inferior mesenteric veins from small and large intestine, splenic vein from spleen & cystic vein from gall bladder. The blood
passes through the secondary capillary bed, the hepatic sinusoid in the liver before entering the general circulation via the inferior vena cava.
Importance of portal circulation (1mark)
Blood with the high concentration of nutrients absorbed from the stomach & intestine goes to liver first. In the liver certain modifications takes place including the blood nutrient level. The venous blood then leaves liver via hepatic vein & joins the inferior vena cava.
(c) State functions of Semen and Placenta (4 marks, 2 marks each) Functions of Semen: (2 marks)
Increase motility and fertility of spermatozoa.
Semen is slightly alkaline, to neutralize the acidity of
Prostaglandin present causes contraction of
It contains nutrients to nourish and support the sperm during their journey through the female reproductive
Functions of placenta: (2 marks)
To provide the foetus with nourishment and removal of waste material from the
To act as the foetal lung by providing oxygenation of the fetal blood
The placenta also acts as a barrier in preventing certain micro-organisms of disease reaching the fetus thus protects the
The placenta helps the ovaries in the production of estrogen & progesterone hormones necessary for the continuation and maintenance of
(d)What is sensory and motor neuron? (1+1 marks). Draw a well labeled diagram of typical neuron (2 marks).
Sensory neuron (1 mark): They carry information from the body to the spinal cord. The impulses may then pass to the brain or to connector neurons of reflex arcs in the spinal cord.
Motor neuron (1 mark): They originate in the brain, spinal cord and autonomic ganglia. They transmit impulses to the effector organs; muscles and glands.
(e) Write the effect of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on:(4 marks, 2marks each )
Pupils:(0.5 + 0.5 marks)
Sympathetic stimulation: Dilation of pupils causing mydriasis.
Parasymp. stimulation: Constriction of pupils causing miosis.
(ii) Bronchioles 🙁 0.5+0.5 marks)
Sympathetic stimulation: Bronchodilation allowing greater amount of air to enter the lungs at each inspiration.
Other blood vessels: Vasoconstriction. Parasympathetic stimulation: Coronary artery: Vasoconstriction Skeletal blood vessels: Vasoconstriction Other blood vessels: Vasodilation
(e) Explain the role of insulin and glucagon in the body. (4 marks, 2 marks each) Role of insulin (3 marks):
Role of insulin
It increases the uptake of glucose by the
Increases the conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver & skeletal
It increases the uptake of amino acids by the
It promotes the synthesis of fatty acids & storage of fats in adipose tissue
Prevents breakdown of protein, fat & gluconeogenesis
Role of glucagon (1 mark): Its function is to increase blood sugar level. Whenever the blood sugar level falls below the normal the glycogen stored in the liver is broken down to glucose by the hormone glucagon.
Thus the two hormones help to maintain the blood sugar level constant.
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Pharma QA Interview Question And Answer are here presented for you to help you to crack Quality Assurance Interview in Pharmaceutical manufacturing companies. Definition Of Quality Assurance along with its use In Pharma Industry are listed here below.
Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 1
Sample QA Interview Question: Define quality assurance Ans) QA is a broad range of concept contains all the matters that individually or collectively effect the quality of a product. QA mainly concentrated on planning and documenting the procedures to assure the quality of the product.
Sample QA Interview Question: What needs to be checked during inprocess QA checks? A. a.) Environmental Monitoring b.) Measured values obtained from the process equipment (ex:temperature,RPM etc.) c.) Measured values obtained from persons (ex:timmings,entries etc.) d.) Process attributes (Ex:weight,hardness,friability etc.)
Sample QA Interview Question: What precautions shall be taken while collecting inprocess samples ? A. While collecting inprocess samples, avoid contamination of the product being sampled (Don’t collect samples with bare hands) & avoid contamination of sample taken.
Sample QA Interview Question: In a tablet manufacturing facility ‘positive’ pressure is maintained in processing area or service corridors? A. In tablet manufacturing facilities, pressure gradients are maintained to avoid cross contamination of products through air. Usually processing areas are maintained under positive pressure with respect to service corridors.
Sample QA Interview Question: If sticking observed during tablet compression what may the probable reason for the same? A. 1.If the granules are not dried properly sticking can occur. 2.Too little or improper lubrication can also leads to sticking. 3.Sticking can occur because of too much binder or hygroscopic granular.
Sample QA Interview Question: What checks shall be carried out, while calibrating DT apparatus? A. While calibrating DT apparatus, following checks shall be performed. 1.) Number of strokes per minute (Limit:29-32 cycles/min) 2.) Temperature by probe & standard thermometer (Limit: 37 ± 1 OC). 3). Distance travelled by basket (Limit:53 -57mm)
Explain the difference between QC and QA?
Ans) QA provides the confidence that a product will full fill the quality requirements. QC determines and measures the product quality level.
QA Interview Question: . Expand cGMP and what is the difference between GMP and cGMP?
Ans) cGMP known as Current Good Manufacturing Practices. It is a USFDA regulations to assure proper design , manufacturing and control of manufacturing processes and services.
GMP-Good Manufacturing Practices. These are the standard guidelines given by Food and Drug administration to make sure that a product is manufactured with safety and quality. c in cGMP means current. It refers to recent and advance updates to these standard guidelines. cGMP is up to date standard reference guidelines.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is In process checks? A. In process checks are checks performed during an activity,In order to monitor and,if necessary,to adjust the process to ensure that product confirms to its specification.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the difference between disintegration and dissolution? A. Disintegration is a disaggregation process, in which an oral dosage form falls apart in to smaller aggregates.(Disintegration time is the ‘break up’ time of a solid dosage form).
Where as dissolution is a process by which solid substance enters in the solvent to yield a solution.It is controlled by the affinity between the solid substance and the solvent.
In other word disintegration is a subset of dissolution.
Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we calibrate a qualified equipment/instrument on definite intervals? A. An equipment or instrument can ‘drift’ out of accuracy between the time of qualification and actual use.So it is recommended to calibrate and recalibrate the measuring devices and instruments on predetermined time intervals, to gain confidence on the accuracy of the data.
Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A: What is room temperature?
Ans) 25 degree centigrade
Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A: What is the Ultraviolet(UV) and visible spectroscopy range?
Ans) UV spectroscopy range 200-400 nm, Visible spectroscopy range 400 nm to 800nm.
Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A: What is the use of UV Spectroscopy?
Ans) Spectroscopy used for detecting the functional groups, impurities. Qualitative and quantitative analysis can be done.
Pharma QA Job Interview Guide Part 2
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative analysis?
Ans) Qualitative analysis involves identification of the compound or chemical based on their chemical(absorption, emission )or physical properties(e.g Melting point, boiling point).
Quantitative analysis involves estimation or determination of concentration or amount of the chemical compounds or components.
Q5) Explain the principle of Ultraviolet spectroscopy?
Ans) UV spectroscopy uses light in the UV part of electromagnetic spectrum. UV absorption spectra arises in which molecule or atoms outer electrons absorb energy, undergoes transition from lower energy level to higher energy level. For each molecule, absorbance at wavelength is specific.
Q6) Explain about Beer Lamberts law?
Ans) It states that the intensity of monochromatic light absorbed by a substance dissolved in a fully transmitting solvent is directly proportional to the substance concentration and the path length of the light through the solution.
Q7) Explain the Infrared spectroscopy principle?
Ans) When a molecule absorbs the Infrared radiation, it vibrates and gives rise to packed Infrared(IR) absorption spectrum. This IR spectrum is specific for every different molecule absorbing the IR radiation, useful for its identification.
Q8) What is the body temperature?
Ans) 37 oCelsius or 98.6 oF
v Define pH? What is the pH of blood? Ans) pH -Negative logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration. Blood pH-7.35 to 7.45.
Q10) Expand LCMS, HPLC,UPLC, TLC and GC?
Ans) LCMS- Liquid Chromatography
HPLC- High Performance Liquid Chromatography,
UPLC- Ultra High Performance Liquid Chomatography,
TLC- Thin Layer Chomatography,
GC- Gas Chromatography.
qc pharma interview questions for freshers
Q11) What is the HPLC principle?
Ans) It is a technique used for separating the mixture of components into individual components based on adsorption, partition, ion exchange and size exclusion principles. Stationary phase and mobile phase used in it. HPLC used for identification, quantification and purification of components form a mixture.
Q12) Explain HPLC instrumentation?
Ans) It involves solvent system, pump, Sample injector, HPLC columns, Detectors and Recorder. Firstly, solvent(mobile phase) is degassed for eliminating the bubbles. It is passed through the pump with a uniform pressure. The liquid sample is injected into the mobile phase flow stream. It passes through the stationary phase identified by the detectors and recorded.
Q13) In reverse phase HPLC, which type of stationary phase is used and give example?
Ans) Non polar stationary phase used
Ex: Silica gel C-18
Q14) What are the detectors used in HPLC?
Ans) UV detector, IR detector, Fluorescence detector, Mass spectroscopy, LC MS etc.
Q15) How to calculate Retention factor in paper chromatography? Ans) Rf = Distance travelled by solute/ Distance travelled by solvent.
Q16) Define molarity?
Ans) Number of moles of solute per litre solution. Denoted with “M”
Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 2
Q17) Define Molality?
Ans) Number of moles of solute per kilogram solvent. Denoted with “m”
Q18) Define Normality?
Ans) Number of Number of moles equivalent per litre solution.
Q19) Molecular weight of oxygen?
Difference between humidity and relative humidity?
Ans) Humidity – Measure of amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere.
Relative humidity- Water vapour amount exists in air expressed as a percentage of the amount needed for saturation at the same temperature.
Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we consider three consecutive runs/batches for process validation? Why not two or four? A. The number of batches produced in the validation exercise should be sufficient to allow the normal extent of variation and trends to be established and to provide sufficient data for evaluation and reproducibility. · First batch quality is accidental (co-incidental), · Second batch quality is regular (accidental), · Third batch quality is validation(conformation). In 2 batch we cannot assure the reproducibility of data,4 batches can be taken but the time and cost are involved.
Sample QA Interview Question: Explain about revalidation criteria of AHU system? A. AHU system shall be revalidated periodically as mentioned in the regulatory standards. AHU shall be revalidated in following cases also. · When basic design of AHU is changed, · When clean room volume is changed, · When new equipment is installed · When a construction is carried out, that calls for reconstruction of AHU system.
Sample QA Interview Question: What needs to be checked during AHU validation? A. During AHU validation, following tests shall be carried out · Filter efficiency test, · Air velocity & number of air changes, · Air flow pattern (visualization) · Differential pressure, temperature and RH · Static condition area qualification · Dynamic condition qualification · Non-viable count · Microbial monitoring · Area recovery and power failure study.
Sample QA Interview Question: Position of oblong tablets to be placed in hardness tester to determine the hardness? Lengthwise / widthwise? A. Position of oblong tablets should be length wise because the probability of breakage is more in this position.
Sample QA Interview Question: Explain in detail about qualification of pharmaceutical water system? A. Qualification of pharmaceutical water system involves three phases · Phase -1 · Phase -2 · Phase -3 Phase -1 A test period of 2-4 weeks should be spent for monitoring the system intensively. During this period the system should operate continuously without failure or performance deviation.Water cannot be used for pharmaceutical manufacturing in this phase.The following should be included in testing approach. · Under take chemical & microbiological testing in accordance with a defined plan. · Sample incoming feed water daily to verify its quality. · Sample each step of purification process daily. · Sample each point of use daily. · Develop appropriate operating ranges. · Demonstrate production and delivery of product water of required quantity and quality. · Use and refine the SOP’s for operation,maintenance,sanitization and trouble shooting. · Verify provisional alert and action levels. · Develop and refine test failure procedure.
Phase -2 A further test period of 2-4 weeks. Sampling scheme will be same as Phase – 1.Water can be used for manufacturing process in this phase. Approach should also · Demonstrate consistent operation within established ranges. · Demonstrate consistent production & delivery of water of required quality and quantity.
Phase – 3 Phase 3 runs for one year after satisfactory completion of phase-2.Water can be used for manufacturing process during this process.
Objectives & Features of Phase -3 · Demonstrate extensive reliable performance. · Ensure that seasonal variations are evaluated. · The sample locations, sampling frequencies and test should be reduced to the normal routine pattern based on established procedures proven during Phase -1 & phase – 2.
Sample QA Interview Question: What are the recommended environmental monitoring limits for microbial contamination?
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the difference between calibration and Validation? A. Calibration is a demonstration that, a particular Instrument or device produces results with in specified limits by comparisons with those produced by a reference or traceable standard over an appropriate range of measurements.
Where as Validation is a documented program that provides high degree of assurance that a specific process, method or system consistently produces a result meeting pre-determined acceptance criteria.
In calibration performance of an instrument or device is comparing against a reference standard. But in validation such reference standard is not using.
Calibration ensures that instrument or measuring devices producing accurate results. Whereas validation demonstrates that a process, equipment, method or system produces consistent results (in other words, it ensures that uniforms batches are produced).
Sample QA Interview Question: Briefly explain about ICH climatic zones for stability testing & long term storage conditions? A.ICH STABILITY ZONES Zone Type of Climate Zone I Temperate zone Zone II Mediterranean/subtropical zone Zone III Hot dry zone Zone IVa Hot humid/tropical zone Zone IVb ASEAN testing conditions hot/higher humidity
Long term Storage condition Climatic Zone Temperature Humidity Minimum Duration Zone I 21ºC ± 2ºC 45% rH ± 5% rH 12 Months Zone II 25ºC ± 2ºC 60% rH ± 5% rH 12 Months Zone III 30ºC ± 2ºC 35% rH ± 5% rH 12 Months Zone IV 30ºC ± 2ºC 65% rH ± 5% rH 12 Months Zone IVb 30ºC ± 2ºC 75% rH ± 5% rH 12 Months Refrigerated 5ºC ± 3ºC No Humidity 12 Months Frozen -15ºC ± 5ºC No Humidity 12 Months
Sample QA Interview Question: What is bracketing & matrixing in stability testing? A.Both Matrixing & Bracketing’s are reduced stability testing designs Bracketing The design of a stability schedule, such that only samples of extremes of certain design factors (ex:strength,package size) are tested at all time points as in full design.The designs assumes that the stability of any intermediate level is represented by the stability of extremes tested. Matrixing The design of a stability schedule, such that a selected subset of possible samples for all factor combinations is tested at a specified time point.At a subsequent time point another subset of samples for all factor combination is tested.The design assumes that the stability of each subset samples tested represents the stability of all samples at a given time point. There for a given time point other than initial & final ones not every batch on stability needs to be tested.
Sample QA Interview Question:What are the common variables in the manufacturing of tablets? A. · Particle size of the drug substance · Bulk density of drug substance/excipients · Powder load in granulator · Amount & concentration of binder · Mixer speed & mixing timings · Granulation moisture content · Milling conditions · Lubricant blending times · Tablet hardness · Coating solution spray rate
Sample QA Interview Question: Whether bracketing & validation concept can be applied in process validation? A.Both Matrixing & Bracketing’s can be applied in validation studies. Matrixing Different strength of same product Different size of same equipment Bracketting – Evaluating extremes Largest and smallest fill volumes Fastest and slowest operating speeds
1. What is an SOP ?
A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) is a certain type of document that describes in a step-by-step outline form how to perform a particular task or operation. Everyone in a company must follow the same procedures to assure that tasks are performed consistently and correctly. Most companies have a wide variety of SOPs that describe how to do different tasks. In many companies technicians and operators are trained in how to follow individual SOPs and their training record specifies which SOPs they are trained on and are authorized to use.
2. What is 21 CFR part 11 ?
Title 21 CFR Part 11 of the Code of Federal Regulations deals with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) guidelines on electronic records and electronic signatures in the United States. Part 11, as it is commonly called, defines the criteria under which electronic records and electronic signatures are considered to be trustworthy, reliable and equivalent to paper records
What are user requirements ?
User Requirements Specification describes what users require from the System. User requirement specifications are written early in the validation process, typically before the system is created. It is written by the System Owner and End Users, with input from Quality Assurance. Requirements outlined in the URS are usually tested in the Performance Qualification. User Requirements Specifications are not intended to be a technical document; readers with only a general knowledge of the system should be able to understand the requirements outlined in the URS.
4. What is a validation plan ?
Validation Plans define the scope and goals of a validation project. Validation plans are written before a validation project and are specific to a single validation project. Validation Plans can include:
Deliverables (Documents) to be generated during the validation process Resources/Departments/Personnel to participate in the validation project Time-Line for completing the validation project
5. What is an IQ document ?
Installation Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify the proper installation of a System. The requirement to properly install the system was defined in the Design Specification. Installation Qualifications must be performed before completing Operational Qualification or Performance Qualification.
6. What is an OQ Document ?
Operational Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify the proper functioning of a System. The operational qualification tests requirements defined in the Functional Requirements. Operational Qualifications are usually performed before the system is released for use.
7. What is a PQ Document ?
Performance Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify that a System performs as expected under simulated real-world conditions. The performance qualification tests requirements that were defined in the User Requirement Specification (or possibly the Functional Requirements). Due to the nature of performance qualifications, these tests are sometime conducted with power users as the system is being released.
8. What is a Validation Summary Report ?
Validation Summary Reports provide an overview of the entire validation project. When regulatory auditors review validation projects, they typically begin by reviewing the summary report. The validation summary report should include:
A description of the validation project All test cases performed, including if those test cases passed without issue All deviations reported, including how those deviations were resolved
9. What is a Change Request ?
Change Control is a general term describing the process of managing how changes are introduced into a controlled System. In validation, this means how changes are made to the validated system. Change control is required to demonstrate to regulatory authorities that validated systems remain under control after system changes. Change Control systems are a favorite target of regulatory auditors because they vividly demonstrate an organization capacity to control its systems.
Sample QA Interview Question: Why water for pharmaceutical use is always kept in close loop in continuous circulation ? A. Water is a best medium for many microorganisms, microorganism can be a highly pathogenic which causes serious diseases(many diseases are water born), these pathogens infect after consumption of contaminated water, microorganisms tend to settle on a surface if water is allowed to stand in a stagnant position for few hours, these settled microorganism form a film over the surface of vessel and piping, such film formed by microorganisms is also called as biofilm, biofilms are very difficult of remove, once a biofilm is formed at a particular point then that point may form a biofilm again even after cleaning very easily as seed from this point is may not completely get removed effectively.
Biofilms then can become a source of microbial contaminations; therefore purified water after collection in a distribution system is always kept in a closed loop in a continuous circulation. A continuous circulation is also not enough at some points, therefore it is aided with high temperature range from 65 °C to 80°C, a minimum temperature of 65 °C is considered a self sanitizing, but better assurance is obtained with a temperature of 80°C .
Purified water collected should be stored in a stainless still vessel which must facilitate distribution to the point of use in a closed loop of continuous circulation, tank should be made of corrosion free material of construction, and must facilitate sanitization and easy cleaning.
Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 3
Sample QA Interview Question: Water for pharmaceutical use shall be free cations,anions and other impurities why ?
A.Water for pharmaceutical must be free from inorganic as well as organic impurities, minerals, and heavy metals. Some impurities like calcium, magnesium, ferrous are responsible for degradation of drug molecule, many cations like ferrous and calcium magnesium act as catalysts in degradation reaction of drug molecule, anions like chloride are highly active they participate in nucliophylic substitution reactions, where in they break a double bond between -C=C- in to a single bond as CL –CH-CH2- , which a reason why we observe that color dies tend to fed in presence of chlorine as most of the dies used are diazo compounds which has plenty of places for nucliophylic substitution reactions, which is also a reason why stability of drug is drastically affected in presence of cations and anions from mineral origin present in water.
Sample QA Interview Question: Water for pharmaceutical use shall be free heavy metals why ? A. Heavy metals like lead and arsenic are highly cumulative neurotoxic metals, heavy metals are not eliminated out of our body easily like other drugs and molecules but heavy metals bind with proteins and tend to get accumulated in fatty tissues, nerve tissue is most likely to get damaged by heavy metals, heavy metal causes nervous tissue damage there for water must be free from heavy metals.
Sample QA Interview Question: Brazil falls under which climatic zone ? A. Zone IVB (30 degree celsius and 75% relative humidity)
Sample QA Interview Question: Change in the size or shape of the original container requires any stability study? A. Change in the size or shape of the original container may not necessitate the initiation of new stability study.
Sample QA Interview Question: Forced degradation(stress testing) and accelerated stability testing are same? A. Forced degradation and stress testing are not same. Stress testing is likely to be carried out on a single batch of the drug substance. The testing should include the effect of temperatures (in 10°C increments (e.g., 50°C, 60°C) above that for accelerated testing), humidity (e.g., 75 percent relative humidity or greater) where appropriate, oxidation, and photolysis on the drug substance. The testing should also evaluate the susceptibility of the drug substance to hydrolysis across a wide range of pH values when in solution or suspension. Photo stability testing should be an integral part of stress testing.
Sample QA Interview Question: According to WHO guidelines what is the storage condition of climatic zone IVa and zone IVb? A. Zone IV a: 30°C and 65% RH (hot and humid countries) Zone IV b: 30°C and 75% RH (hot and very humid countries
Sample QA Interview Question: Countries comes under climatic zone IVb? A.Brazil,Cuba,China,Brunei,Cambodia,Indonesia,Malaysia,Myanmar,Philippines,Singapore,Thailand
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the purpose of stress testing in stability studies? A. Stress testing of the drug substance can help identify the likely degradation products, which can in turn help establish the degradation pathways and the intrinsic stability of the molecule and validate the stability indicating power of the analytical procedures used. The nature of the stress testing will depend on the individual drug substance and the type of drug product involved.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the formula for calculating number of air changes in an area? A. Number of air changes/hour in an area is
= Total Room Airflow In CFM x 60 Total Volume of room in cubic feet For calculating Total Room Airflow in CFM, first calculate air flow of individual filter. Formula is given below.
Air flow (in cfm) = Avg.air velocity in feet/Minute x Effective area of filter
Then find Total air flow. Formula is Total Air flow = Sum of air flow of individual filter.
Air flow Velocity can be measured with the help of Anemometer.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is dead leg? A. A dead leg is defined as an area in a piping system where liquid can become stagnant and not be exchanged during flushing.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended bio burden limits of purified water & WFI? A. Purified water has a recommended bioburden limit of 100 CFU/mL, and water for injection (WFI) has a recommended bio burden limit of 10 CFU/100 mL. Sample QA Interview Question: Brief about ICH stabilty guidelines? A. Q1A- Stability testing of new drug substance & products Q1B- Photo stability testing of new drug substances & products Q1C-Stability testing of new dosage forms Q1D-Bracketing & Matrixing designs for testing of new drug substances and products Q1E-Evaluation of stability data Q1F-Stability data package for registration applications in climatic zone III & IV (Withdrawed)
Sample QA Interview Question: What is significant changes in stability testing? A. 1. A 5% change in assay for initial value.
2. Any degradation products exceeds its acceptance criterion.
3. Failure to meet acceptance criterion for appearance,physical artributes and functionality test.
4. Failure to meet acceptance criteria for dissolution for 12 units.
Sample QA Interview Question: If leak test fail during in process checks what needs to be done ? A. Immediately stop packing process and check for 1.Sealing temperature 2.Verify for any possible changes like foil width,knurling etc. 3.Check & quarantine the isolated quantity of packed goods from last passed inprocess. 4.Collect random samples & do retest. 5.Blisters from the leak test passed containers shall allow to go further and rest must be deblistered/defoiled accordingly.
Sample QA Interview Question: How many Tablets shall be taken for checking friability? A. For tablets with unit mass equal or less than 650 mg, take sample of whole tablets corresponding to 6.5g.For tablets with unit mass more than 650mg,take a sample of 10 whole tablets.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the formula for calculating weight loss during friability test? A. %Weight loss = Initial Weight – Final Weight X 100 Initial Weight
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the pass or fail criteria for friability test? A. Generally the test is run for once.If any cracked,cleaved or broken tablets present in the tablet sample after tumbling,the tablets fails the test.If the results are doubtful,or weight loss is grater than the targeted value,the test should be repeated twice and the mean of the three tests determined.A mean weight loss from the three samples of not more than 1.0% is considered acceptable for most of the products.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the standard number of rotations used for friability test? A. 100 rotations
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the fall height of the tablets in the friabilator during friability testing? A. 6 inches.Tablets falls from 6 inches eight in each turn within the apparatus.
Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we check hardness during inprocess checks? A. To determine need for the pressure adjustments on the tableting machine. Hardness can affect the disintegration time.If tablet is too hard, it may not disintegrate in the required period of time. And if tablet is too soft it will not withstand handling and subsequent processing such as coating,packing etc.
Sample QA Interview Question: What are the factors which influence tablet hardness? A. 1.compression force 2.Binder quantity(More binder more hardness) 3.Moisture content
Sample QA Interview Question: Which type of tablets are exempted from Disintegration testing? A. Chewable Tablets
Sample QA Interview Question: Which capsule is bigger in size – size ‘0’ or size ‘1’? A. ‘0’ size
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended temperature for checking DT of a dispersible tablet? A. 25 ±10C (IP) & 15 – 250C (BP)
Sample QA Interview Question: What is mesh aperture of DT apparatus ? A. 1.8 -2.2mm (#10)
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the pass/fail criteria for disintegration test?
A. If one or two tablets/capsules fails to disintegrate completely, repeat the test on another 12 additional dosage units. The requirement is meet if not fewer than 16 out of 18 tablets/capsules tested are disintegrated completely.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended storage conditions for empty hard gelatin capsules? A. 15 – 250C & 35 -55% RH
Sample QA Interview Question: Which method is employed for checking “Uniformity of dosage unit”? A. A.)Content uniformity B.) Weight Variation Weight variation is applicable for following dosage forms;Hard gelatin capsules,uncoated or film coated tablets,containing 25mg or more of a drug substance comprising 25% or more by weight of dosage unit.
Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended upward and downward movement frequency of a basket-rack assembly in a DT apparatus? A. 28 – 32 cycles per minute.
Sample QA Interview Question: When performing the ‘uniformity of weight’ of the dosage unit, how many tablet/capsule can deviate the established limit? A. Not more than two of the individual weights can deviates from the average weight by more than the percentage given in the pharmacopeia,and none can deviates more than twice that percentage. Weight Variation limits for Tablets
IP/BP Limit USP 80 mg or less 10% 130mg or less More than 80mg or Less than 250mg 7.5% 130mg to 324mg 250mg or more 5% More than 324mg
Weight Variation limits for Capsules IP Limit Less than 300mg 10% 300mg or More 7.5%
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