Exam Guide

All you want to know about Pharmacy entrance examinations

GPAT & NIPER – Books Topics Pattern Online Practice Exam Papers

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GPAT NIPER EXAM details

When preparing for the Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT) and the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) exam, it is essential to have access to the right study materials and resources. A comprehensive understanding of the exam pattern, important topics, and access to practice exam papers can significantly enhance preparation. Several books, online courses, and platforms offer a wealth of study materials, including practice exams, mock tests, and video lectures. Additionally, online test series and study packages are available to help aspirants assess their readiness and improve their performance. By leveraging these resources, candidates can effectively prepare for the GPAT and NIPER exams, ultimately increasing their chances of success. Many Questions about this exam are answered below like what are the most important topics to focus on for gpat and niper?, what are the best free online resources for gpat and niper preparation?, what are the most recommended books for gpat and niper preparation?,

What’s a good book for the GPAT and NIPER? for pharmacy students

Several books are recommended for pharmacy students preparing for the GPAT and NIPER exams. Some of these include:

1. “Fundamentals of Pharmacy (For GPAT & NIPER)” by Chiragkumar Gohil, which covers basic materials helpful for various competitive examinations, including GPAT and NIPER.

2. “MCQs Book in Pharmacy Entrance Oriented” which introduces a series of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering important learning objectives in pharmaceuticals.

3. “MCQs in Pharmaceutical Sciences for GPAT and NIPER” by Prabhakar Verrareddy Reddy, which provides MCQs specifically tailored for the GPAT and NIPER exams.

4. “The Pearson Guide to GPAT and Other Entrance Examination in Pharmacy” by Akaberi Shah Baser, which is widely regarded as one of the top books for GPAT preparation, providing theory in a concise manner and past years’ question papers.

These books cover a range of topics and question formats, providing comprehensive preparation for the GPAT and NIPER exams.

Are there any online resources for gpat and niper preparation

There are several online resources available for GPAT and NIPER preparation. Some of the notable ones include:

1. **Educare Experts**: This is a free GPAT online coaching platform that provides study notes, test news, warnings, and applicable counterfeit tests on a typical apparatus online entry[2].

2. **GPATTutor.com**: This website offers a GPAT course with online video pre-recorded classes, practice exams at chapter, subject, and course levels.

3. **YouTube**: There are also free resources available on YouTube, such as video lectures and links to download PDF books for GPAT and NIPER exams.

These resources offer a variety of study materials, including pre-recorded classes, practice exams, and study notes, to help students prepare for the GPAT and NIPER exams.

How many subjects are there in gpat and niper

what are the most important topics to focus on for gpat and niper

The most important topics to focus on for GPAT and NIPER preparation include:

1. **Pharmaceutical Sciences**: This encompasses a wide range of sub-topics such as pharmaceutics, pharmaceutical jurisprudence, pharmaceutical management, and health education & community pharmacy[3].

2. **Pharmacology**: Understanding the fundamentals of pharmacology is crucial for both exams.

3. **Physical Chemistry**: Topics like organic chemistry, physical pharmacy, and essentials of physical chemistry are essential for a strong preparation[2].

4. **Medicinal Chemistry**: This includes a focus on organic chemistry, NMR spectroscopy, mass spectrometry, IR, and UV, which have been frequently covered in previous years’ question papers[3].

5. **Basics of Pharmaceutical Sciences**: A clear understanding of the basics is essential for both exams[3].

These topics are key areas to concentrate on when preparing for the GPAT and NIPER exams. Several books, such as “Fundamentals of Pharmacy (For GPAT & NIPER)” by Chiragkumar Gohil, cover these important topics[1].

The most important topics to focus on for GPAT and NIPER preparation include:

1. **Pharmaceutical Sciences**: This encompasses a wide range of sub-topics such as pharmaceutics, pharmaceutical jurisprudence, pharmaceutical management, and health education & community pharmacy[3].

2. **Pharmacology**: Understanding the fundamentals of pharmacology is crucial for both exams.

3. **Physical Chemistry**: Topics like organic chemistry, physical pharmacy, and essentials of physical chemistry are essential for a strong preparation[2].

4. **Medicinal Chemistry**: This includes a focus on organic chemistry, NMR spectroscopy, mass spectrometry, IR, and UV, which have been frequently covered in previous years’ question papers[3].

5. **Basics of Pharmaceutical Sciences**: A clear understanding of the basics is essential for both exams[3].

These topics are key areas to concentrate on when preparing for the GPAT and NIPER exams. Several books, such as “Fundamentals of Pharmacy (For GPAT & NIPER)” by Chiragkumar Gohil, cover these important topics[1].

How many questions are there in gpat and niper for each subject – EXAM PATTERN

The GPAT exam consists of 125 multiple-choice questions, with the following subject-wise weightage:
– Pharmaceutical Chemistry: 38 questions
– Pharmaceutics: 38 questions
– Pharmacognosy: 10 questions
– Pharmacology: 28 questions
– Other Subjects: 11 questions

On the other hand, the NIPER JEE exam comprises 200 multiple-choice questions.

The marks allotment and negative marking for both exams are as follows:
– GPAT: Four marks for each correct answer, with a negative marking of one mark for each wrong answer[2].
– NIPER JEE: One mark for each correct answer, with a negative marking of 25% of the marks for each wrong answer.

These details provide a clear understanding of the number of questions and the marking scheme for each subject in the GPAT and NIPER exams.

how can i improve my speed and accuracy for gpat and niper

To improve speed and accuracy for the GPAT and NIPER exams, consider the following strategies based on the provided search results:

1. **Clear Understanding of Basic Concepts**: Focus on fundamental subjects such as pharmaceutics, pharmacology, pharmacognosy, organic chemistry, and medicinal chemistry. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the basic concepts of every subject[4].

2. **Develop a Strong Strategy**: Clearing your concepts will help you develop a better strategy for solving questions, leading to improved speed and accuracy[2].

3. **Regular Study Schedule**: Dedicate at least 4 to 4.5 hours every day to study and cover each subject that will come in the exams[2].

4. **Online Learning Resources**: Leverage online platforms for learning, such as YouTube for video lectures and GPAT coaching institute-specific topic session videos, tech talks, and success stories[2].

5. **Practice Exams and Mock Tests**: Take advantage of online mock exams and practice tests to improve speed and accuracy. GPAT coaching websites offer online mock exams with questions based on the GPAT pattern, which can help in improving exam-taking skills[5].

6. **Stay Updated on Current Affairs and Logical Reasoning**: It’s important to keep abreast of current affairs and work on logical reasoning to enhance overall preparation[4].

By following these strategies, you can work towards improving your speed and accuracy in preparation for the GPAT and NIPER exams.

How can i access practice exams for gpat and niper

To access practice exams for GPAT and NIPER, you can consider the following options:

1. **GPATTutor.com**: This platform offers a GPAT course with online video pre-recorded classes and a variety of practice exams at the chapter, subject, and course levels[2].

2. **Educare Experts**: This is a free GPAT online coaching platform that provides study notes, test news, warnings, and applicable counterfeit tests, making it a valuable resource for practice exams and preparation[5].

3. **Online Mock Exams**: Several online platforms offer mock exams specifically tailored to the GPAT pattern, providing an opportunity to practice with questions similar to those in the actual exam[2].

4. **GPAT Preparation Books**: Books such as “Fundamentals of Pharmacy (For GPAT & NIPER)” by Chiragkumar Gohil may also include sample exams and practice questions to aid in preparation[3].

By utilizing these resources, you can access a wide range of practice exams and study materials to help you prepare effectively for the GPAT and NIPER exams.

PEBC – Canada Registered Pharmacist EXAM Question Paper with Answers PDF

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PEBC Exam paper

Pharmacist Evaluating Examination Sample Questions are given here with answers. The questions are designed to test the knowledge of pharmacists and their ability to apply it in their daily practice. Generally, the exam is divided into two parts, namely a written part and a practical part. The written part consists of multiple choice questions which can be answered using different options provided by the question. On the other hand, the practical OSCE is Part 2 of the examination. The questions here provided are just for practice and based on previous paper or another similar one from the sample paper.

 

BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES

 

  • Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:
  1. pyrimidine
  2. purine
  3. pyrazine
  4. pteridine
  5. pyridine

 

  • Which of the following releases enkephalins?
  1. Pineal gland
  2. Thyroid gland
  3. Periaqueductal grey matter
  4. Reticular activating system
  5. Pituitary gland

 

  • β-Carotene is the precursor of:
  5. retinoic

 

  • Which of the following statements regarding transcription is correct?
  1. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA
  2. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is DNA
  3. During transcription, the genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of tRNA is translated into a protein
  4. The process of transcription includes the splicing of
  5. Following initiation, the next stage of transcription is

 

  • Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular bacteria, making it resistant to cell wall-active antibiotics?
  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Legionella pneumophila
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  5. Chlamydophila pneumoniae

 

  • Which of the following blood vessels transports nutrient rich blood from the intestines to the liver?
  1. Hepatic artery
  2. Hepatic portal vein
  3. Great saphenous vein
  4. Inferior vena cava
  5. Superior vena cava

 

  • The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:
  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 20
  5. 25

 

  • In adults, community-acquired pneumonia caused by which of the following organisms is associated with the highest mortality rate?
  1. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
  2. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
  4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  5. Pneumocystis jirovecii

 

  • Which of the following is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?
  1. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
  2. Dopamine
  3. Glutamate
  4. Acetylcholine
  5. Glycine

 

  • Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from viral RNA?
  1. Reverse transcriptase
  2. DNA polymerase
  3. RNA polymerase
  4. Endonuclease
  5. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

 

  • Of the essential transition metal ions found in the human body, the one present at highest overall concentration is:

 

 

  • The optic disc is also called the:
  1. blind
  5. macula

 

  • If systemic blood pressure decreases, which of the following would occur to help return blood pressure to normal?
  1. Increased urine production
  2. Increased acetylcholine release
  3. Increased aldosterone secretion
  4. Increased diameter of systemic arterioles
  5. Increased erythropoietin production

 

  • Which of the following muscle groups are innervated by the sciatic nerve?
  1. Calf muscles
  2. Deep back muscles
  3. Shoulder muscles
  4. Quadriceps femoris muscles
  5. Abdominal muscles

 

  • Which of the following does NOT empty its contents into the gastrointestinal tract?
  1. Liver
  2. Pancreas
  3. Spleen
  4. Submandibular gland
  5. Appendix

 

  • Achieving a high level of herd immunity is an important public health strategy because it:
  1. reduces immunization costs in
  2. enhances individual immunologic
  3. facilitates animal
  4. protects people who cannot be
  5. requires fewer booster

 

PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCES

 

  • All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct,

EXCEPT:

  1. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile
  2. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic
  3. the solute usually forms an amorphous
  4. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug
  5. water is removed from the frozen mixture by

 

  • Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it:
  1. selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular
  2. does not induce peripheral
  3. decreases the force of myocardial
  4. delays the atrioventricular (AV) conduction
  5. prolongs the QT interval on the

 

  • Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the drug:
  1. is
  2. is protein
  3. is acidic but not protein
  4. has a small volume of
  5. has a large volume of

 

  • Drug A is administered by continuous IV infusion at a rate of 2 mg/min. It has an average half-life of
    • h and a volume of distribution of 150 L in an average 70 kg patient. Using this information, what is the steady-state concentration of Drug A in plasma?
  1. 5 mg/L
  2. 7 mg/L
  3. 1 mg/L
  4. 4 mg/L
  5. 7 mg/L

 

21

Valproic acid is metabolized by aliphatic hydroxylation to the above two structures. The relationship between the two metabolites illustrates the concept of:

  1. conformational
  2. structural
  3. geometric
  4. optical

 

 

  • Which of the following medications induces an isoform of cytochrome P450?
  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Clarithromycin
  3. Amiodarone
  4. Metronidazole
  5. Bosentan

 

  • Diazepam Injection U.S.P Diazepam 5 mg/ml

Ethanol 10%

Propylene glycol 40%

Benzyl alcohol 1.5%

Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, propylene glycol functions as a(n):

 

  • Which of the following directly influences the in vitro physical stability of an oil-in-water emulsion in which the drug is incorporated in the dispersed phase?
  1. Amount of preservative added
  2. Molecular weight of the drug
  3. Solubility of the emulsifier in water
  4. Particle size of the internal phase
  5. Type of suspending agent used

 

  • Abatacept acts by:
  1. stimulating adenosine
  2. binding to MHC Class II on B
  3. inhibiting B cell
  4. activating T cell
  5. binding CD80/86 on antigen-presenting

 

  • With respect to bioequivalence, the parameter “Cmax” is:
  1. affected by the extent of absorption
  2. affected by the rate of absorption
  3. affected by neither rate nor extent of
  4. affected by both rate and extent of
  5. the only significant

 

27

The above structures are related to one another as:

  5. positional (structural)

 

  • Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5, and 4 h (hours). The mean half-life is:
  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 5.4 h.
  4. 5.8 h.
  5. 6 h.

 

  • Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following, EXCEPT:
  1. to mask the taste of the
  2. to mask the odor of the
  3. to improve the appearance of the
  4. to increase the drug’s release
  5. to protect the drug from stomach

 

  • Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?
  1. Deliquescence
  2. Efflorescence
  3. Hygroscopicity
  4. Polymorphism
  5. Condensation

 

 

  • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation?
  1. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the
  2. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more
  3. Binding agents may be added dry or in
  4. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to
  5. Glidants promote the flow of materials during

 

  • Factors that determine bioequivalence of two brands of a drug include the:
  1. taste of the
  2. physical appearance of the
  3. pharmacokinetic parameters of the
  4. cost of the
  5. package size of the

 

 

  • The total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min. This is most likely explained by the fact that the drug:
  1. is extensively
  2. accumulates in patients with moderate renal failure
  3. undergoes significant entero-hepatic
  4. is not bound to plasma
  5. is concentrated in adipose

 
  • The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

 

  • Imatinib is an anticancer agent used in the treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia that acts by inhibiting the activity of:
  1. tyrosine kinase of Bcr-Abl.
  2. tyrosine kinase of HER-2.
  3. tyrosine kinase of
  4. histone
  5. serine/threonine kinase

 

  • Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na+-H+ exchange system of the renal tubule?
  1. Furosemide
  2. Hydrochlorothiazide
  3. Spironolactone
  4. Acetazolamide
  5. Amiloride

 

  • Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms, EXCEPT:
  1. dry
  2. flushed
  3. delirium and restlessness.

 

  • The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms?
  1. Combining with acetylcholine
  2. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase
  3. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
  4. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor
  5. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending

 

  • Which of the following is a selective adrenergic beta1-blocker with endothelium-dependent vasodilating properties?
  1. Nebivolol
  2. Metoprolol
  3. Acebutolol
  4. Nadolol
  5. Carvedilol

 

  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of monoclonal antibody drug therapies?
  1. Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of
  2. T cells are stimulated and will initiate a host rejection
  3. Adalimumab is a murine-derived immunoglobulin monoclonal antibody
  4. Use of chimeric monoclonal antibodies is associated with increased
  5. Use of Fc fragments avoids raising an immune response against the FAB

 

  • In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is included as:
  1. an
  2. a
  3. a
  4. a
  5. an

 

  • The carbonic anhydrase inhibitor dorzolamide is structurally classified as a:

 

  • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding virus vectors used in the production of biotechnology drugs?
  1. Viruses can be introduced by
  2. Viruses can be generated by an infected production cell
  3. The most frequent source of virus introduction is the growth
  4. Viruses can be inactivated by physical or chemical treatment of the
  5. There is a trend toward using better-defined growth media in which serum levels are significantly reduced.

 

  • Which of the following excipients is NOT commonly found in biotechnology formulations?
  1. Albumin
  2. Lysine
  3. Tween 20
  4. Saline
  5. Phosphate

 

  • An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is:

 

  • Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to:
  1. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the
  2. post-antimicrobial
  3. enhanced tissue
  4. reduced renal
  5. higher peak-trough

 

  • How much NaCl is required to make 100 mL of isotonic 5% phenylephrine HCl solution? (NaCl equivalent of phenylephrine HCl is 0.32)
  1. 100 mg
  2. 300 mg
  3. 500 mg
  4. 740 mg
  5. 900 mg

 

  • Which of the following nonparenteral routes of administration yields the best bioavailability of biotechnology protein drugs?
  1. Oral
  2. Rectal
  3. Ocular
  4. Pulmonary
  5. Transdermal

 

  • Theoretically, the shelf life of a pharmaceutical tablet preparation is best measured by a change in which of the following?
  1. Permeability of the drug
  2. Dissolution of the drug
  3. Strength of the drug
  4. Solubility of the drug
  5. Partitioning of the drug

 

  • A drug that is considered to be low clearance and is metabolized entirely by the liver is sensitive to changes in:
  1. drug binding to plasma
  2. bile
  3. hepatic blood
  4. renal blood
  5. p-glycoprotein transport

 

  • Which of the following statements is correct about transdermal drug administration?
  1. Most drugs can permeate the skin and enter the systemic
  2. Transdermal absorption achieves a fast onset of drug
  3. The skin is tolerant to most drugs and chemicals in transdermal delivery
  4. Transdermal administration produces minimal variations in drug
  5. Hair follicles are a determinant in limiting transdermal drug

 

  • Two drugs (Drug A and Drug B) were administered at a dose of 10 mg/kg to two subjects. Drug A was administered intravenously and Drug B was administered orally. Plasma samples were collected

and concentrations of both drugs were measured. A semilog plot of concentration vs. time is shown below. The concentration of Drug A is represented by the solid line and Drug B by the dashed line.

 

 

 

 

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. The absorption rate constants for Drug A and Drug B can be estimated from the
  2. Drug B has a lower clearance than Drug
  3. Drug A has a larger distribution volume than Drug
  4. Drug B has a higher plasma protein binding than Drug
  5. The volume of distribution for Drug A can be estimated from the

 

  • Which of the following drugs is an antagonist at the central presynaptic alpha2-adrenergic receptors?
  1. Clonidine
  2. Terazosin
  3. Mirtazapine
  4. Risperidone
  5. Venlafaxine

 

  • A monoclonal antibody was tested in patients using the following dose ranges and resulted in the following t1/2 values:

Dose                  Half-life

0.2 mg/kg           2 days

  • mg/kg 8 days
  • mg/kg 18 days
  • mg/kg 18 days

5 mg/kg            18 days

What is the reason for the dose-dependent t1/2? The biologic drug:

  1. eliminates primarily by the lymphatic system at lower
  2. eliminates primarily by the liver resulting in nonlinear
  3. eliminates by
  4. distributes rapidly to peripheral organs at lower
  5. exhibits target-mediated drug

 

  • Pravastatin inhibits:
  1. PCSK9
  2. lipoprotein
  3. vascular oxidative
  4. scavenger receptor
  5. HDL

 

  • In a manufacturing setting, which of the following methods is the most appropriate to use for sterilization of plastic (PVC) tubing?
  1. Dry heat
  2. Steam autoclave
  3. Ionizing radiation
  4. Ethylene oxide gas
  5. Filtration

 

  • What is the first process used when evaluating the integrity of a recombinant protein after each purification step?
  1. ELISA
  2. Quantitative PCR
  3. Peptide mapping
  4. SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
  5. Amino acid sequencing

 

  • Which of the following types of neurotransmitter receptors is most responsible for the

decreased risk of extrapyramidal side effects observed with some second generation antipsychotics relative to first generation antipsychotics?

  1. Serotonergic
  2. Histaminergic
  3. Muscarinic
  4. Noradrenergic
  5. Alpha-adrenergic

 

  • In tablets made from wet granulation processing, which of the following substances is commonly included as a lubricant?
  1. Lactose
  2. Potato starch
  3. Croscarmellose
  4. Dicalcium phosphate
  5. Sodium lauryl sulfate

 

  • Permeation enhancers increase drug absorption from buccal dosage forms by which of the following mechanisms?
  1. Decreasing drug solubility
  2. Extracting oral mucosal lipids
  3. Disrupting saliva secretion
  4. Increasing drug particle size
  5. Prolonging oral retention

 

  • Disintegration of a compressed tablet is primarily dependent upon which of the following properties of the tablet?
  1. Size
  2. Shape
  3. Hardness
  4. Coating
  5. Stability

 

PHARMACY PRACTICE – Clinical Sciences

 

  • At typical dosing, which of the following antidepressant medications is associated with the highest incidence of nausea?
  1. Sertraline
  2. Fluoxetine
  3. Duloxetine
  4. Escitalopram
  5. Desvenlafaxine

 

  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of fluoroquinolones?
  1. Fluoroquinolones can cause blood glucose alterations in elderly patients who take oral antihyperglycemic
  2. Healthy women with acute uncomplicated cystitis should be treated for a minimum of 7 days with a fluoroquinolone.
  3. Therapeutic drug monitoring is recommended with prolonged fluoroquinolone therapy, to avoid ototoxicity.
  4. In the case of treatment failure, another fluoroquinolone should be tried before switching to a different antibiotic
  5. All fluoroquinolones have equal efficacy when used to treat patients with community-acquired pneumonia.

 

QUESTIONS 64 TO 65 INCLUSIVE REFER TO THE FOLLOWING:

SM is a 34 year old female who, while vacationing in Mexico, began prophylactic treatment for travellers’ diarrhea. Shortly thereafter she complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears, black stools and a black tongue. SM’s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides.

 

  • Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM’s complaints?
  1. Bismuth subsalicylate
  2. Cotrimoxazole (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)
  3. Doxycycline
  4. Amoxicillin
  5. Loperamide

 

  • An organism commonly implicated in the cause of travellers’ diarrhea is:
  1. Bacteroides fragilis.
  2. Escherichia coli.
  3. Clostridium difficile.
  4. Listeria monocytogenes.
  5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

 

 

************

 

  • Which of the following medications requires monitoring for the adverse effect of dyslipidemia?
  1. Ciprofloxacin
  2. Allopurinol
  3. Isotretinoin
  4. Ramipril
  5. Raloxifene

 

  • The mother of a 6 year old child presents to the pharmacist with a written prescription for amoxicillin that was ordered by the physician three days earlier. She states that her child was diagnosed wit otitis media and the symptoms have remained the same over the past three Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacist response?
  1. Fill the prescription as written
  2. Refuse to fill the prescription as the antibiotic order is no longer current
  3. Indicate a need to contact the prescriber before filling the prescription at this time
  4. Fill the prescription for a quantity that is the ordered amount less three days’ supply
  5. Explain that, at this late date, antibiotic therapy will likely be ineffective for the child

 

  • RF is an 80 year old female who developed CDAD (Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea) after recent treatment of a urinary tract infection with ciprofloxacin. She is admitted to hospital with profound diarrhea (eight watery bowel movements per day) and fever (39.5º C). Based on her symptoms, which of the following is the most appropriate therapy choice for her?
  1. Oral metronidazole
  2. Intravenous metronidazole
  3. Oral cholestyramine
  4. Oral vancomycin
  5. Intravenous vancomycin

 

  • CC, a 72 year old female, complains to the pharmacist that her stomach has been bothering her recently. Current medications include: levothyroxine 100 mcg po daily (x 30 years), acetaminophen 500 mg po qid (x 5 months), atorvastatin 40 mg po at bedtime (x 4 years), ibuprofen 400 mg po tid prn joint pain (x 2 months), and zopiclone 3.75 mg po at bedtime prn (x 3 months). Based on CC’s current symptoms, which of the following drug therapy problems best describes CC’s current situation?
  1. Too high a dosage of atorvastatin
  2. Too high a dosage of zopiclone
  3. Need for cytoprotection with ibuprofen
  4. Drug interaction between atorvastatin and zopiclone
  5. Too low a dosage of levothyroxine

 

  • A 27 year old patient presents to a community pharmacy for the first time and tells the pharmacist that he experienced an allergy to a penicillin product as a child. His symptoms included hives, wheezing and facial swelling, which resulted in hospitalized Which of the following is the most important reason for a community pharmacist to document this type of information in a patient’s medication profile record?
  1. To provide drug allergy information to the patient’s insurance
  2. To encourage the patient to fill future prescriptions at this
  3. To advertise relevant pharmacy products or services to appropriate
  4. To enhance continuity of patient care regardless of the
  5. To provide a record of cognitive services for insurance

 

 

QUESTIONS 71 TO 72 INCLUSIVE REFER TO THE FOLLOWING:

 

TK is a 63 year old male with chronic kidney disease (CrCl = 29 mL/min/1.73m2) and gout. He experienced his last gout attack about two months ago. Today his toe is extremely painful, hot, red, and swollen. At a walk-in clinic, he receives a prescription for naproxen 500 mg po bid for five days. TK’ s other current medication is pravastatin 20 mg po at bedtime.

 

  • What drug therapy problem should the pharmacist identify for TK?
  1. Naproxen is inferior to indomethacin for the treatment of acute
  2. The duration of naproxen treatment is too
  3. Naproxen should be avoided in patients taking
  4. Naproxen should be avoided in patients with renal
  5. The frequency of naproxen dosing is too

 

  • Following successful resolution of the acute episode, TK’s physician decides that he should initiate allopurinol. TK should be advised to:
  1. limit fluid
  2. take medication on an empty
  3. use precautions to avoid
  4. report any skin rash or itching to the
  5. avoid dairy products or multivitamins within 2 hours of

**********

 

  • All of the following have been implicated in causing toxic nephropathy, EXCEPT:

 

  • In the treatment of a patient who has a solid tumour, which of the following side effects typically occurs one to two weeks after chemotherapy?
  1. Neuropathy
  2. Cardiotoxicity
  3. Neutropenia
  4. Emesis
  5. Nephrotoxicity

 

  • Lactose intolerance is classified as a(n):
  2. enzyme
  3. mineral
  4. transporter
  5. vitamin

 

  • A community pharmacist conducts a medication review for a 67 year old patient who has a 20-year history of COPD, diabetes and The patient’s current medications include the following:

Aclidinium 400 mcg inhaler, one inhalation bid

Budesonide 200 mcg/formoterol 6 mcg Turbuhaler®, 2 inhalations bid Salbutamol 100 mcg MDI, 2 inhalations qid

Sitagliptin100 mg, one tablet po daily Metformin 500 mg, one tablet po tid

Venlafaxine ER 150 mg, one capsule po at bedtime

Which of the following drug therapy problems should be identified for this patient?

  1. Taking too high a dosage of aclidinium
  2. Taking too high a dosage of metformin
  3. Inappropriate dosing time for venlafaxine
  4. Drug interaction between sitagliptin and metformin
  5. Duplication of therapy with salbutamol and formoterol

 

  • Which of the following is characterized as an autoimmune disorder?
  1. Alzheimer disease
  2. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  3. Osteoarthritis
  4. Parkinson disease
  5. Paget disease

 

  • A pregnant female presents with a prescription for an antibiotic for treatment of a urinary tract infection. She tells the pharmacist that she doesn’t know why the doctor gave her the medication, because she isn’t experiencing any symptoms. Her presentation is consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
  1. Cystitis
  2. Septicemia
  3. Urinary retention
  4. Pyelonephritis
  5. Asymptomatic bacteriuria

 

  • A community pharmacist would like to begin a diabetic education program for local patients newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Beneficial information for this group includes all of the following EXCEPT:
  1. strategies to minimize cardiac risk
  2. the facts on diabetes and its
  3. the role of blood glucose
  4. appropriate dietary
  5. the technique for the mixing of

 

  • Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for moderate to severe atopic dermatitis in an 8 year old child?
  1. Urea 20% cream
  2. Tacrolimus 0.03% cream
  3. Pimecrolimus 1% cream
  4. Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% ointment
  5. Clobetasone propionate 0.05% cream

 

  • Which of the following is a normal host defence that helps to prevent pneumonia?
  1. Low sputum pH
  2. Aspiration
  3. Thick, tenacious sputum
  4. Neutropenia
  5. Epiglottal closure

 

  • Tadalafil is preferred over sildenafil in which of the following patient situations?
  1. After using sublingual nitroglycerin
  2. After eating a high-fat meal
  3. If receiving hemodialysis
  4. If taking testosterone supplementation
  5. For males over the age of 60 years

 

  • Which of the following vitamins is found at reduced levels in cigarette smokers compared to nonsmokers?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D
  5. Vitamin K

 

  • Which of the following is a reasonable goal of therapy for a patient with active inflammatory bowel disease?
  1. Prevent infection
  2. Prevent mortality
  3. Maintain quality of life
  4. Achieve endoscopic remission
  5. Limit the number of colectomies

 

  • BC is a 25 year old female with depression who has had an adequate trial with each of sertraline and escitalopram. She has tolerated the medications but has only achieved a partial response to escitalopram 20 mg po once Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for BC?
  1. Increase escitalopram to 40 mg po once daily
  2. Add diazepam 5 mg po once daily to escitalopram
  3. Add aripiprazole 2 mg po once daily to escitalopram
  4. Stop escitalopram and start fluoxetine 20 mg po once daily
  5. Stop escitalopram and start venlafaxine XR 150 mg po once daily

 

PHARMACY PRACTICE – Professional Practice Skills Questions

 

  • Which of the following is NOT a benefit of performing medication reconciliation activities in a hospital setting?
  1. Reduction of medication errors
  2. Reduction of inventory pilferage
  3. Reduction of preventable adverse effects
  4. Assessment of patient adherence to therapy
  5. Enhanced accuracy of patient allergy information

 

  • The web site of which of the following would be most appropriate to consult in order to determine whether there are any safety alerts associated with a prescription drug product?
  1. Canadian Agency for Drugs and Technologies in Health
  2. Health Canada
  3. Institute for Safe Medication Practices
  4. Canadian Patient Safety Institute
  5. Canadian Institute for Health Information

 

  • In dispensing, the Latin abbreviation for “before meals” is:

 

  • In dispensing, the English meaning for the Latin phrase “ex aqua” is:
  1. with or in
  2. extracellular
  3. exact
  4. soluble in
  5. out of

 

  • Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:
  1. 12.5% w/w.
  2. 16.7% w/w.
  3. 20% w/w.
  4. 23.8% w/w.
  5. 25% w/w.

 

  • Appropriate quality control procedures to ensure product and patient safety in the pharmacy do NOT include which of the following?
  1. Adhering to guidelines for cold chain management
  2. Maintaining a regular cleaning schedule for dispensary surfaces
  3. Cleaning counting trays and automated counting machines regularly
  4. Using TALLman lettering on all prescription labels
  5. Regulating the pharmacy’s indoor climate where medications are stored

 

  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the MedlinePlus web site for drug information? The service:
  1. provides a compilation of clinical practice guidelines for health care
  2. provides systematic reviews that are based solely on evidence from primary
  3. has an emphasis on providing patient/consumer information on a wide variety of health
  4. is limited by its availability only through paid subscription by health care
  5. is limited by a lag to publication and updating of patient therapy-related

 

  • The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following?
  1. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine may be
  2. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be
  3. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the second
  4. The maximum dosage in any 24-hour period is six
  5. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24

 

  • Which of the following medications requires an auxiliary label regarding avoiding the consumption of grapefruit or grapefruit juice?
  1. Felodipine
  2. Amlodipine
  3. Levetiracetam
  4. Divalproex
  5. Gabapentin

 

  • The recommended pediatric dosage for azithromycin therapy is 12 mg/kg po once daily on Days 1 through 5. For a child weighing 8.3 kg, calculate the total volume needed for the total course of treatment, if a product supplying 200 mg/5 mL is supplied for this
  1. 5 mL
  2. 15 mL
  3. 25 mL
  4. 5 mL
  5. 50 mL

 

  • A pharmacist is making a presentation on medication adherence to a group of clients. Which of the following would be the most appropriate indicator of the effectiveness of the presentation for these clients?
  1. Increase in fill quantity for each prescription refill
  2. Reduced number of prescriptions filled per month
  3. Increase in number of nonprescription medications used
  4. Reduced number of prescription refill dates per month
  5. Prescription refill dates closer to expected fill intervals

 

  • Rx Timolol 0.25 % drops Mitte : 15 mL

Sig: gtt. i o.d. bid

On the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read:

  1. apply one drop into both eyes twice
  2. instil one drop into the left eye twice
  3. instil one drop into the right eye twice
  4. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice
  5. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice

 

 

  • According to ISMP guidelines, which of the following medication orders contains a dangerous abbreviation or dosing designation?
  1. Insulin NPH 10 units subcut at bedtime
  2. Oxycodone CR 40 mg po q12h
  3. Gliclazide 80 mg po bid
  4. MTX 7.5 mg po weekly
  5. Levothyroxine 88 mcg po daily

 

  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding Tylenol Elixir With Codeine® (each 5 ml contains acetaminophen 160 mg and codeine 8 mg)?
  1. It requires a written order from an authorized
  2. It is an example of a legally exempted codeine
  3. Sale for self-medication use must involve a
  4. It is regulated under the Benzodiazepines and Other Targeted Substances
  5. Authorized prescribers include

 

  • A physician wants to switch a terminally-ill patient from slow release morphine sulfate tablets, 15 mg tablets. If a morphine sulfate solution containing 5 mg per mL is prescribed q4h, what volume should be dispensed for a 20 day supply to provide the same pain relief as the tablet regimen?
  1. 20 mL
  2. 60 mL
  3. 80 mL
  4. 100 mL
  5. 120 mL

 

  • A biological safety cabinet is required when preparing a parenteral formulation of:
  3. magnesium

 

  • Which of the following drug orders is incomplete and requires follow-up with the prescriber?
  1. Zithromax Z-Pak® (azithromycin 250 mg), 2 tabs po on day 1 and 1 tab po on days 2-5.
  2. Flonase® (fluticasone) 100 mcg spray, 1 or 2 sprays in each nostril bid x 1 bottle
  3. Actonel® (risedronate), 35 mg po once weekly x 12 tabs
  4. Cozaar® (losartan), 50 mg po bid x 1 month
  5. Zocor® (simvastatin), 1 tab po hs for 3 months

 

  • JN, a 17 year old male with a highly resistant form of testicular cancer, is in hospital for treatment. He is an intelligent, articulate young His parents are insisting that the physician treat him with the latest experimental therapy, but JN does not want to undergo the treatment. If the physician goes ahead and gives the experimental therapy what ethical principle will have been violated the most?
  1. Confidentiality
  2. Nonmaleficence
  3. Justice
  4. Veracity
  5. Autonomy

 

 

  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypothesis testing?
  1. A type I error frequently occurs when sample sizes are
  2. A type II error is more serious than a type I
  3. Small p-values suggest that the null hypothesis is likely to be
  4. The larger the p-value, the more likely the null hypothesis is
  5. P-value is the probability of wrongly rejecting the null hypothesis if it is in fact

 

 

  • An adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over two years demonstrated that the primary outcome (a serious cardiovascular event) occurred in 15% of the patients who received the new drug, whereas the primary outcome occurred in 25% of the patients who received a placebo. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug is:
  1. 10%.
  2. 15%.
  3. 25%.
  4. 40%.
  5. 50%.

 

  • In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over three years, a specific serious side effect (i.e., reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for three years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:
  1. 15.
  2. 20.
  3. 150.
  4. 200.
  5. 2000.

 

  • In a study comparing two drug treatment regimens, a type II error occurs when:
  1. the statistical conclusion is that there is a difference between the two treatment regimens when a difference does not actually
  2. the statistical conclusion is that there is no difference between the two treatment regimens when a difference actually does
  3. the p level is > 05.
  4. the drug treatments studied are not appropriate comparators for the
  5. the exclusion criteria are too

 

  • A pharmacist has received information regarding a new drug to treat hypertension. The information is based on a two-month, placebo controlled, randomized study of 1000 adults that showed a statistically significant average decrease in systolic pressure from 160 mm Hg to 141 mm Hg and in diastolic pressure from 98 mm Hg to 86 mm Hg. The most common adverse reactions were stomach upset and dizziness. Which of the following is the most significant limitation of this study?
  1. The study size was too small to assess
  2. The patients did not achieve guideline targets for
  3. Blood pressure is a surrogate
  4. Long term safety and efficacy were not
  5. Placebo is not an appropriate

 

  • Part G of Canada’s Food and Drug Regulations deals with which of the following?
  1. Vitamins and minerals
  2. Pharmaceuticals
  3. Controlled Drugs
  4. Benzodiazepines and Targeted Substances
  5. Narcotic Preparations

 

  • Which of the following is a significant barrier perceived by physicians, that impedes effective pharmacist-physician collaboration in the provision of patient care?
  1. Provision of patient-specific counselling by pharmacists
  2. Lack of adequate education and training of pharmacists
  3. Lack of pharmacist follow up in assessing patient outcomes
  4. Increased patient demands for more frequent medical appointments
  5. Interruption of physician workflow due to pharmacist communications

 

  • Which of the following statements regarding a disruption in the cold chain for vaccines is correct?
  1. Vaccines exposed to temperatures above the recommended range can have an increase in potency and should not be administered to any
  2. Vaccines exposed to temperatures below the recommended range should be labelled “do not use” and kept at room temperature until their integrity is
  3. Inactivated vaccines are more likely than live attenuated vaccines to have a shortened half-life when exposed to high temperatures (up to 37º C).
  4. Diluents of vaccines that have been frozen can be used as they do not contain any active ingredients.
  5. Vaccines containing an aluminum adjuvant experience a permanent loss of potency when subjected to

 

 

Questions from BEHAVIOURAL, SOCIAL AND ADMINISTRATIVE PHARMACY SCIENCES

 

 

  • In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drug’s efficacy, associated workload, and acquisition Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available. Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows:

 

Drug Cost/Day Dosing Frequency Treatment Duration (days)
A $2.50 qid 14
B $2.25 once daily 14
C $5.00 bid 7
D $2.25 bid 7
E $2.25 qid 7

The most appropriate choice for the hospital is:

  1. Drug
  2. Drug
  3. Drug
  4. Drug
  5. Drug

 

  • Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?
  1. Balance sheet
  2. Statement of investments
  3. Statement of changes in financial position
  4. Income statement
  5. Statement of equity

 

  • The standard of universal access to government insured health care in Canada is mandated by:
  1. the Canada Health
  2. individual provinces and
  3. Health Canada’s Health Environment and Consumer Safety
  4. Canadian Agency for Drugs and Technologies in Health
  5. Public Health Agency of

 

  • Which of the following responsibilities can be appropriately delegated to a non-pharmacist manager of a community pharmacy?
  1. Purchasing narcotic drugs
  2. Selecting clinical decision software for the dispensary computer
  3. Coordinating staff scheduling
  4. Supervising pharmacy technicians
  5. Determining workflow for the pharmacy’s professional services

 

  • Academic detailing by pharmacists provides a service to physicians by:
  1. educating on improved prescription
  2. advising on optimal patient interviewing
  3. recommending strategies to avoid medication
  4. providing current information on best prescribing
  5. promoting the use of physician samples given to

 

  • A role of The National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities is to:
  1. audit the financial performance of provincial pharmacy licensing
  2. promote harmonization of pharmacy practice standards across
  3. establish a unified lobby voice for pharmacists from all types of practice
  4. provide mechanisms for the public to file complaints about pharmacy care
  5. accredit the pharmacy programs at Canadian universities

 

  • The term ‘perspective’ in the context of a pharmacoeconomic study refers to the:
  1. source of funding for conducting the pharmacoeconomic
  2. approach the researcher takes to analyze the research
  3. approach the researcher uses to limit confounding
  4. stakeholder whose interest is most represented in the study’s
  5. method used to facilitate communication of the study results in a journal

 

  • Which of the following would be the most effective method to prevent “inventory shrinkage” due to internal theft within a pharmacy?
  1. Assigning the responsibility of ordering and receiving of inventory to one
  2. Implementing an employee bag check program at the end of
  3. Hiring a uniformed security guard to monitor the pharmacy
  4. Offering incentives such as employee discounts on
  5. Installing mirrors and security cameras strategically throughout the

 

  • In the context of a pharmacy business, which of the following groups represent a market niche, rather than a market segment?
  1. Women
  2. The elderly population
  3. Children with asthma
  4. High-income earners
  5. Parents of young children

 

  • An identical screening test for a disease is used in two Communities (A and B), but the proportion of false positive results among those who test positive in Community A is lower than those who test positive in Community B. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
  1. The specificity of the test is lower in Community
  2. The specificity of the test is higher in Community
  3. The prevalence of disease is lower in Community
  4. The prevalence of disease is higher in Community
  5. It is not possible to explain the difference between Community A and

 

  • “Medically necessary” services are established in Canada by the:
  1. provincial
  2. provincial drug
  3. Canadian Medical
  4. federal
  5. Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of

 

  • Including a cost assessment in the protocol for a randomized, controlled clinical trial is called a:
  1. cost-benefit
  2. cost-minimization
  3. cost-effectiveness
  4. cost-efficacy analysis.
  5. cost-utility

 

  • The best study design to assess intermittent or transient drug exposures is a:
  1. case-control
  2. retrospective cohort
  3. randomized control
  4. case-crossover
  5. cross-sectional

 

  • Customer loyalty should be important to a pharmacy manager because it:
  1. reduces the amount of time that pharmacists must spend with
  2. generates a stream of high revenue from an identifiable customer
  3. helps the pharmacy staff to greet customers by their first
  4. protects the pharmacy manager from liability claims arising from dispensing
  5. is costly to attract new

There are few missing parts. Pls Download the PDF of Canada Registered Pharmacist Exam Question Paper

Canada Pharmacist Exam Question and Answers

Answers to above Questions

 

1. (d) 26. (d) 51. (c) 76. (e) 101. (b)
2. (c) 27. (c) 52. (e) 77. (b) 102. (e)
3. (a) 28. (c) 53. (c) 78. (e) 103. (e)
4. (a) 29. (d) 54. (e) 79. (e) 104. (e)
5. (e) 30. (b) 55. (c) 80. (b) 105. (d)
6. (b) 31. (b) 56. (d) 81. (e) 106. (e)
7. (a) 32. (c) 57. (d) 82. (b) 107. (b)
8. (d) 33. (a) 58. (c) 83. (c) 108. (d)
9. (a) 34. (c) 59. (e) 84. (d) 109. (c)
10. (a) 35. (a) 60. (b) 85. (c) 110. (e)
11. (c) 36. (d) 61. (c) 86. (b) 111. (e)
12. (a) 37. (e) 62. (a) 87. (b) 112. (d)
13. (c) 38. (c) 63. (a) 88. (a) 113. (d)
14. (a) 39. (a) 64. (a) 89. (a) 114. (a)
15. (c) 40. (a) 65. (b) 90. (b) 115. (c)
16. (d) 41. (a) 66. (c) 91. (d) 116. (d)
17. (d) 42. (c) 67. (a) 92. (c) 117. (b)
18. (a) 43. (c) 68. (d) 93. (c) 118. (d)
19. (a) 44. (c) 69. (c) 94. (a) 119. (b)
20. (b) 45. (b) 70. (d) 95. (a) 120. (c)
21. (b) 46. (b) 71. (d) 96. (e) 121. (d)
22. (a) 47. (d) 72. (d) 97. (c) 122. (a)
23. (c) 48. (d) 73. (e) 98. (d) 123. (d)
24. (d) 49. (c) 74. (c) 99. (a) 124. (d)
25. (e) 50. (a) 75. (b) 100.(e) 125. (e)

 

Telugu RRB Question Paper

by

 

T1. In which of the following activities silicon carbide is used?
cutting very hard substances
1. క్ంది వాటిల్లో దేనిల్ల సిలికాన్ కార్బైడ్ వాడతారు?
చాల్ా గటిివ ైన పదారాా ల్ు కత్తిర ్ంచడానికి
02. Which radioactive pollutant drew the attention of public, due to its occurrence in the building
material?
Thorium
2. కటిడాల్ కటటి దల్ల్ల వాడే ఏ పదారథ్ం వల్ో వచేే రేడియో ఆకిివ్ కాల్ుష్య్ం పరజల్ ఆకటటి కు్ంది ?
థోర య్ం
03. Which of the following is a protein?
Natural rubber
కి్ందివాటిల్లో ప్రర టీన్ ఏది?
నాచురల్ రబ్ైర్
04. Optic fiber is mainly used for which of the following?
Communication
4. కి్ంది వాటిల్లో దేనిల్ల ఆప్ిిక ఫ ైబ్ర్ వాడతారు?
కమ్యయనికేష్న్
5. The outer shell of the egg is composed of
Calcium Carbonate
5. గయడడు ప్ ై ను్ండే ప్ ్ంకు ……….ద ్ంతో చేయబ్డి ఉ్ంటట్ంది
కాలిియ్ం కారైనేట్
6 Carbohydrates are organic compounds with the basic structure:
CX (H2O)y
6. కారబైహ ైడేరట్్ యొకక మ్ూల్పదారథ్ం ఏ ఆరాా నిక కా్ంప్ ్ండ్ ల్ల ఉ్ంటట్ంది….
CX (H2O)y
7. The majority of the patients with coronary heart disease have an elevated level of:
Cholesterol
7. కారొనరీ గయ్ండెజబ్యైల్ు కల్ వాయధిగస్ుి ల్లో ఇది ఎకుకవగా ఉ్ంటట్ంది ర
కొవవు
8 Which of the following food group is the concentrated source of energy?
DELETED
8. కి్ంది వాటిల్లో ఏ ఆహార్ం శకిికి మ్ూల్పదారథ్ం?
తొల్గ ్ంచడబ్డినది
09. Adoption of children in India is through a statutory body called
Central Adoption Resource Authority
. 09. భారత దేశ్ంల్ల చటిబ్దామ ైన స్్ంస్థ దాురా ఒక బిడును దతిత తీస్ుకోడ్ం అనేది
స ్ంటరల్ అడాపిన్ ర సర ర్్ అథార టీ
10. United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) was established in
the year
1946
10. యయన ైటెడ్ నేష్న్్ ఇ్ంటరేేష్నల్ చిల్ురన్్ ఎమ ర్ెన్స్ ఫ్ండ్ ……. స్్ంవత్ర్ంల్ల న ల్కొల్పబ్డి్ంది
1946
11. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prevention) Act was enacted in the year
1986
11.ఇ్ండీస ్ంట్ ర్పరస ్ంటేష్న్ ఆఫ్ వవమ న్ ఆకి ఏ స్్ంవత్ర్ం న ల్కొల్పబ్డి్ంది
1986
12. One Stop Centers (OSCs) meant for women affected by violence and financial assistance
are established with grants from the

Nirbhaya Fund
12. వన్ సాి ప్ స ్ంటర్ అ్ంటే అతాయచారాల్కు గయర్బనస్ిల్కు ఆర థక్ంగా స్హాయ్ం అ్ంది్ంచడానికి ీ ….చే
ఏరపరచబ్డి్ంది
నిరభయఫ్ండ్
13. Impairments of the ability to recognize familiar objects are called:
Agnosia
13. బ్ాగా తెలిసిన వస్ుి వవలిే గయర ి్ంచడ్ంల్లబ్ల్హీనతను ఏమ్్ంటారు?
అగబేషియ
14. ‘PURA’ is a concept given by Former President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam and
discussed in his book Target 3 Billion which he co-authored with Srijan Pal
Singh. PURA stands for:
Provisions of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
14. “ప్ి యయ ఆర్ ఏ” అనేదానిే డా. ఏ.క్.జి. అబ్యు ల్ కల్ామ్ గారు స్రజాన్ ప్ాల్ సి్ంగ్ తో కలిసి రాసిన
టార్ాట్ ౩ బిలియనలో ప్ేరొకనాేరు. అస్ల్ు ప్ి యయ ఆర్ ఏ అ్ంటే ఏ్ంటి?
ప్రర విస్న్్ ఆఫ్ అరైన్ అమ నిటీస్ ఇన్ రూరల్ ఏర యాస్
15. The Nirbhaya Act, 2013 also defines more sexual offences besides rape. These
are:
(1) Both (Stalking and Voyeurism) and (Gang rape and Sexual harassment)
15. 2013 కు చె్ందిన నిరభయ ఆకి, అతాయచార్ం ఒకేి కాకు్ండా అనేక ఇతర స కు్వల్ నేరాల్ను
ప్ేరొక్ంటట్ంది.
ర్్ండడ (సాి కి్ంగ్, వొయినిస్మ్) & (సామ్ూహిక అతాయచార్ం, స కు్వల్ హరాస మ్ంట్ ) అవకాసాల్ు
కూడ

Government Pharmacist  previous question paper 

Question Number: 16
Recently ‘Titanwala Museum’ has been inaugurated in which state of India?
Rajasthan
16. టెైటన్ వాల్ా మ్ూయసియ్ం ఇటీవల్ ఏ రాష్ిర్ంల్ల ప్ార ర్ంభ్ంచబ్డి్ంది?
రాజసాథ న్
17.Read the following statements:
a. The Statue of Unity is dedicated to SardarVallabhbhai Patel.
b. It is 182 meters tall and is located between the Satpura and the Vindhya mountain
ranges.
c. It was built by sculptor Ram V Sutar and intricate bronze cladding done by a Chinese
foundry, the Jiangxi Toqine Company.
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?
All the given options.
17. కి్ందునే వాకాయల్ను చదవ్ండి:
a) సాి చుయ ఆఫ్ యూనిటీ స్రాు ర్ వల్ోభాయ్ ప్ాటిల్ కు అ్ంకిత్ం చేయబ్డి్ంది
b) అది 182 మీటరో ఎతతి ల్ల స్తపపరా వి్ంధ్య పరుతాల్ మ్ధ్యల్ల ఉ్ంది
c) అది రామ్ వి స్ుతార్ అనే శిలిప, చెైనా వార జియాగ ్ టోకియని అనే క్ంప్ న్సతో కల్సి క్ంచుతో చేశారు
ప్ ైనునే పరకటనల్లో ఏది / ఏవి స్ర్బనది/వి?
ప్ ైవన్సే
18.The World Day of Social Justice is celebrated all over the World on 20 February. The
theme of 2019 World Day of Social Justice was:
If you want Peace & Development, Work for Social Justice.
18. పరప్ంచ సామ్ాజిక నాయయ దినలత్వ్ం ఫిబ్రవర ౨౦ న జరుపవతారు. 2019 కు థ మ్ ఏమిటి?
మీకు శా్ంత్త, అభవృదిా కావాల్్ంటే సామ్ాజిక నాయయ్ం
Question Number: 19
Who has become the first player in history to win the Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for ICC
Cricketer of the Year, the ICC Men’s Test Player of the Year and the ICC ODI Player of the
year awards in 2018?
Virat Kohli
19. 2018 ల్ల ఐ సి సి, ఓడి ఐ ప్ేోయర్ ఆఫ్ ది ఇయర్, స్ర్ గార ఫ్ల్ు సర బ్ర్్ టోర ఫ్ ఫర్ ఐ సి సి కిరక్టర్
ఆఫ్ ది ఇయర్ అవారుు ల్ు గ్లిచి్ందెవరు?
విరాట్ కోహీో
20. Consider the following statements about Vande Bharat Expressa. It is India’s first indigenously built engineless semi- high speed train.
b. It runs between Delhi and Surat at a maximum speed of 160 kmph.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
Only a
20. కి్ంది పరకటనల్లో వ్ందేభారత్ ఎక్ ప్ రస్ కు గయర ్ంచి స్ర్బనదేది?
a) అది భారతదేశ్ంల్ల తయారు చేయబ్డు స మీ హ ై స్పడ్ ర్బల్ు
b) అది ధిల్లో స్ూరత్ ల్ మ్ధ్య160 కి.మీ వేగ్ంతో నడడస్ుి ్ంది
ఏ మ్ాతరమే
21.National Safety Day/Week is a whole week safety campaign which is being celebrated
from_________ in 2019.
4
th March to 10th March
21. దేశీయ రక్షణా దిన్ం/ వార్ం అనేది ఒక వార్ం రక్షణ కా్ంప్ ైన్ ——- ను్ంచి 2019 జరుగయతత్ంది.
4 ను్ంచి మ్ార్ే 10 దాకా
22. Which of the following states in India has brought out a comprehensive bilingual tribal
dictionary seen as a measure to preserve vanishing native languages in the state?
Odisha
22. నశి్ంచిప్ర తతనే భాష్ల్ను కాప్ాడే అవకాశ్ంగా ఏ రాష్ిర్ం ఒక స్్ంపూరణ దిుభాషా నిఘ్ంటటవవను
తయారు చేసి్ంది.
ఒడిసా్
23. What are the major official languages of Andhra Pradesh?
Telugu and Urdu
23. ఆ్ంధ్రపరదేశ్ ల్లని ఆధికార క భాష్ల్ేవి?
తెల్ుగయ, ఉరుు
24.The OBC population data will be introduced from which Census year in India?
2021
24. ఓ బి సి జనాభా డాటా స న ్స్ ఆఫ్ భారతదేశ్ంల్ల ఏ స్్ంవత్ర్ం ను్ంచి ప్ార ర్ంభ్ంచి్ంది?
2021
25. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the
following diseases?
Swine Flu
25. కి్ంది వాయధ్ుల్లో దేని విష్య్ంల్ల H1N1 వ ైరస్ వారిల్లో కి వచిే్ంది?
స ైున్ ఫ్ూో
26. If an object is thrown upwards, what will be its velocity, when it reaches its maximum
height (neglect the air resistance)?
0 m/s
26. ఒక వస్ుి వవ ప్ ైకి విసిర తే, అతయ్ంత ఎతతి కు వ ళితే, దాని వ ల్ాసిటీ ఎ్ంత? (గాలి వల్ో ఆట్ంక పడటానిే
వదలి)
0 m/s
27. _________ is an instrument for measuring the distance travelled by a wheeled vehicle.
Odometer
27. చకార ల్ునే బ్్ండి ఎ్ంతదూర్ం వ ళిళ్ందో కొలిచే య్ంతార నిే…………
ఓడోమీటర్
28. Splitting of white light into seven colors on passing through the glass prism is calledDispersion
28. గాో స్ ప్ిరస్మ్ ల్ల ను్ంచి తెల్ోని కా్ంత్త ఏడడ ర్ంగయల్ుగా విభజి్ంపబ్డటానిే ……..
డిస పరిన్
29.Which of the following has highest pH?
Human blood
29. కి్ంది వాటిల్లో అతయ్ంత pH ఉ్ండేది ఏది?
మ్నిషి రకి్ం
30. Kerosene oil floats on water becauseIts density is less than the density of water
30. కిరబసిన్ న్సటి మీద తేల్డానికి కారణ్ం…..
న్సటి డెని్టీ కనాే దాని డెని్టీ తకుకవ
Question Number: 31
Which one of the following pairs matches one another?
Jaundice – Liver
31. కి్ంది జతల్లో ఏది ఒక దానితో ఒకటి స్ర ప్ర ల్ుతత్ంది.
జా్ండీస్ – కాల్ేయ్ం
32. What is the minimum distance required to hear an echo?
17.2 metre
32. పరత్తధ్ుని వినిప్ి్ంచాల్్ంటే కావాలి్న కన్సస్ దూర్ం ఎ్ంత?
17.2 మీటర్
33. What is the range of mercury thermometer in Fahrenheit?
−35 to 673 °F
33. థెరబమమీటర్ ల్ల ఫార న్ హీట్ ల్కు మ రుకురీ రే్ంజ్ ఎ్ంత?
−35 to 673 °F
34. One hydraulic horsepower is equal to746 watts
34. ఒక హ ైడార లిక హార్్ పవర్ ….. దే్ంతో స్మ్ాన్ం
746 వాట్్
35. Consider the following statements with respect to Paika Rebellion
a. The Paika Rebellion was an armed rebellion against the British East India Company’s
rule that took place in West Bengal.
b. The Paika Rebellion was led by BakshiJagabandhu, former commander of forces of
the Raja of Khurda.
Which of the above statements are true?
Only b
35. కి్ంది పరకటనల్లో ప్ ైక ర్బ్ెలియన్ విష్య్ం పర గణల్లకి తీస్ుకో్ండి
a) ప్ ైకా ర్బ్ెలియన్ అనేది ఈస్ి ఇ్ండియా క్ంప్ న్స మీద పశిేమ్ బ్ె్ంగాల్ుల్ల బ్యల్ుదేర న సాయయధ్
త్తరుగయబ్ాటట
b) ప్ ైకా ర్బ్ెలియన్ ఖుదర అనే రాజుగార స ైనాయధిపత్త, బ్క్షీజగబ్్ంధ్ు ఆధ్ురయ్ంల్ల జర గ ్ంది
ప్ ై ర్్ండి్ంటిల్ల ఏది స్ర్బనది?
బి మ్ాతర్ం
36. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer codes given below the lists-
List- I List- II
a. Karnam Malleshwari 1. Kuchipudi Maestro
b. Sobha Naidu 2. Chess Grandmaster
c. Pulapaka Susheela 3. Weightlifter
d. Humpy Koneru 4. Legendary Singer
Codes:
a b c d
3 1 4 2
36. కి్ందునే పటిికలిే జతపరచి కి్ంది జవాబ్యల్లో స్ర్బనదానిే గయర ి్ంచ్ండి.
పటిిక – I పటిిక- II
a. కరణ్ం మ్ల్లోశుర 1. కూచిపూడి నాటాయచారుయల్ు
b. శోభానాయయడడ 2. చదర్ంగ గార్ండ్ మ్ాస్ిర్
c. పవల్ప్ాకస్ుశీల్ 3. వ ైట్ లిఫ్ిర్
d. హ్ంప్్ కోనేరు 4. గొపప గాయని
కోడ్్:
a b c d
3 1 4 2
37. Which of the following pairs given below is incorrectly matched?
Year India – Pak Conflict
1965 First war over Kashmir
37. కి్ంద ఉనే జతల్లో తపవపగా జతపడినది ఏది?
స్మ్య్ం ఇ్ండియా – ప్ాకిసాి న్ గొడవల్ు
1. 1965 కాశీమర్ విష్య్ంల్ల తొలి యయదా్ం
38. Consider the following statementsa. Before 1773 Governors General of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal) was
named as Governor of Bengal, which was in existence since 1757 to 1772.
b. William Bentinck was the first Governor- General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Both a and b
38..కి్ంది పరకటనల్ు గమ్ని్ంచ్ండి
a) ప్ రసిడెన్స్ ఆఫ్ ఫర ర్ి విలియమ్్ గవరేర్ జ్నరల్ (బ్ె్ంగాల్) ను బ్ె్ంగాల్ గవరేరుగా 1773 ను్ంచి
ఏరపడు తరాుత 1757 – 1772 దాకా అల్ాగే ఉ్ంది.
b) విలియమ్ బ్ె్ంటిక భారతదేశ తొలి గవరేర్ జ్నరల్
కి్ంది వాటిల్లో ఏది/వి స్ర్బనవి?
ఏ, బి ర్్ండూ
39. Who is known for killing Lord Mayo, the Viceroy of India?
Sher Ali Afridi
39. ల్ార్ు మ్ాయో, భారత వ ైసార య్ ని చ్ంప్ి్ంది ఎవరు?
షేర్ అల్ల అఫ్రడీ
40. The immediate cause of India’s first war of independence in 1857 wasIntroduction of new Enfield rifles
40. 1857 ల్లభారత తొలి సాుత్ంతరు ప్ర రాటానికి మొదటి కారణ్ం…..
ఎన్సీల్ు ర్బఫిల్్ ను పరవేశప్ టిడ్ం
41. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer codes given below the lists-
List- I List- II
First Indian Woman Name
a. Judge of Supreme Court 1. Rajkumari Amrita Kaur
b. Union Minister 2. Meera Sahib Fatima Bibi
c. Speaker of Lok Sabha 3. Indira Gandhi
d. Bharat Ratna 4. Meira Kumar
Codes-
a b c d
2 1 4 3
41. కి్ంది పటిికల్ను జతపర చి ఇవుబ్డిన కోడ్్ ల్ల్ంచి స్ర్బన స్మ్ాధానానిే ఇవు్ండి.
భారతదేశ తొలి మ్హిళ ప్ేరు
a.స్ుప్్రమ్ కోరుి జడ్ె 1. రాజ కుమ్ార అమిిత కౌర్
b.యూనియన్ మినిస్ిర్ 2. మీరాసాహిబ్ ఫాత్తమ్ా బీబీ
c.ల్లక స్భ స్పకర్ 3. ఇ్ందిరాగా్ంధ
d.భారత రతే 4.మీరా కుమ్ార్
కోడ్్_-

a b c d
2 1 4 3
42. Match List- I (Leaders of the revolt of 1857) with List- II (their areas of operation)
List – I List – II
a. KorukondaSubba Reddy 1. Lucknow
b. Dundasena 2. Hyderabad
c. JamedarChida Khan 3. Yernagudem
d. Begum Hazrat Mahal 4. Parlakimedi
Codes-
a b c d
3 4 2 1
42. కి్ంది పటిికలిే(1857ఉదయమ్ నాయకుల్ు ) జతపరచ్ండి
పటిిక – I పటిిక – II
a.కోరుకొ్ండ స్ుబ్ాైర్డీు 1. ల్కోే
b.దు్ండ సేన 2. హ ైదరాబ్ాద్
c.జమేదార్ ఛిదాఖాన్ 3. ఎఱ్ఱనగూడె్ం
d.బ్ేగ్ం హజరత్ మ్హల్ 4. ఫరాో ఖిమిడి
కోడ్్-

a b c d
3 4 2 1
43. Who founded the “Krishna Patrika”?
Konda Venkatappayya
43. కృషాణ పత్తరక వయవసాథ పకుల్ెవరు?
కొ్ండా వ ్ంకటపపయయ
44. Consider the following statementsa. Mahatma Gandhi was born as Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. The honorific title
‘Mahatma’ was given to him in 1914.
b. Gandhiji was not present during Nehru’s tryst of destiny speech to celebrate
independence.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Both a and b
44. కి్ంది పరకటనల్ను పర గణనల్లకి తీస్ుకో్ండి…..
a) మ్హాతామగా్ంధ గార ప్ేరు మోహన్ దాస్ కరమ్ చ్ంద్ గా్ంధి.ఆయనకు ఆ గౌరవపూరుకమ ైన
మ్హాతమ అనే1914 ల్ల ప్ేరు ఇవుబ్డి్ంది.
b) గా్ంధ గారు సాుత్ంతరు్ం వచిేన తరాుత న హరూ గారు జరుప్ిన వేడడకల్లో ప్ాల్గా నల్ేదు.
కి్ంది వాటిల్లో ఏది/వి స్ర్బనది/వి?
ఏ, బి ల్ు ర్్ండూ
45. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Vernacular Press Act, 1878?
a. Lord Lytton passed the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 in the best interest of the
government.
b. In 1878, when the Vernacular Press Act was passed, the number of Indian English
Newspapers was 20 and vernacular newspapers were 200.
c. By this act, the magistrates of the districts were empowered, without the prior
permission of the Government, to call upon a printer and publisher of any kind to
enter into a Bond, undertaking not to publish anything which might “rouse” feelings
of disaffection against the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given belowa, b and c
45. వ రాేకుయల్ర్ ప్ రస్ ఆకి 1878 విష్య్ంల్ల కి్ంది పరకటనల్లో ఏది స్ర్బనది?
a) పరభయతు ల్ాభ్ం కోస్్ం ల్ార్ు ల్ెైటిన్ వ రాేకుయల్ర్ ప్ రస్ ఆకి 1878 ను పరవేశ ప్ టాి డడ.
b) వ రాేకుయల్ర్ ప్ రస్ ఆకి 1878 పరవేశప్ టిబ్డినపవపడడ ఆ్ంగోపత్తరకల్ు భారతీయ భాష్ల్లో పత్తరకల్ు
c) ఈ ఆకుి కి్ంద, ఏ రకమ ైన మ్య్ందస్ుి అనుమ్త్త తీస్ుకోకు్ండా, ఏ పత్తరక వయవసాథ పకుల్న ైనా ప్ిలిచి ఓ
రకమ ైన ఒపప్ంద్ం చేస్ుకోడానికి, అల్ాగే ఏ విష్యమ ైనా పరభయతాునికి ఎదురుగా ఉనాే, ఉదయమ్ాది
భావనల్ను ర్చేగొటేివ ైనా జిల్ాో మేజ్సేిరట్ ల్కు అధికార్ం ఇవుబ్డి్ంది,
స్ర్బన జవాబ్యను కి్ంది కోడ్్ ఆధార్ంగా గయర ి్ంచ్ండి
ఏ, బి, సి ల్ు
46. Which insurance company has launched a new micro plan ‘Micro Bachat’?
Life Insurance Corporation
46. ఏ ఇనూ్ుర్న్్ క్ంప్ న్స “మ ైకోర బ్చత్” అనే ప్ేరుతో మ ైకోర ప్ాో న్ ప్ార ర్ంభ్ంచి్ంది?
ల్ెైఫ్ ఇనూ్ుర్న్్ కారొపరేష్న్
47. Who has launched a digital payment gateway ‘iPay’?
IRCTC
47. ’ఐ ప్ే” ప్ేరుతో డిజిటల్ ప్ేమ ్ంట్ ను ప్ార ర్ంభ్ంచి్ందెవరు?
ఐ ఆర్ సి టి సి
48.Which Great Personality’s dream was the source of inspiration behind Swachh Bharat
Abhiyan?
Mahatma Gandhi
48. స్ుచఛ భారత్ అభయాన్ ఏ గొపప వయకిి కల్ల్ ఫలిత్ం?
మ్హాతామగా్ంధి
49. Which of the following is amongst the criteria for being registered as a national
political party?
a. It is recognized as a recognized political party in 2 or more states.
b. At the last general election to the house of people, the party has won at least 5% of
the total number of seats.
Neither a nor b
49. కి్ంది వాటిల్లో ఒక జాతీయ రాజకీయ ప్ారీిగా ర జిస్ిర్ చేస్ుకోడానికి అవస్రమ ైనవేవి?
a) ర్్ండడ ల్ేక అ్ంతక్ంటే ఎకుకవ రాషాిర ల్ల్ల గయర ి్ంపవ ప్ర్ందిన రాజకీయ ప్ారీి అయయ్ండాలి.
b) చివర ఎనిేకల్లో ఆప్ారీి హౌస్ ఆఫ్ ప్్పవల్ ల్ల మొతి్ం స్టోల్ల5% శాత్ం అయినా గ్లిచి ఉ్ండాలి
ఏ,బి ర్్ండడ కాదు
50. Who can remove the chairman of state Public Service Commission?
President of India

Government Pharmacist practice questions for exams

50. రాషాిర పబిో క స్రీుస్ కమిష్న్ ఛెైరమన్ ను తీసివేయ వచుే?
రాష్ిరపత్త
51. Ranbir Penal Code is applicable in which state?
Jammu and Kashmir
51. రణబైర్ ప్ేన ల్ కోడ్ ఏ రాషాిర నికి చె్ందినది?
జమ్యమ, కాశీమర్
52. Which of the following are the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(1957)?
a. Establishment of two tier panchayat raj system.
b. Direct elections to both the village panchayat and zilaparishad.
c. All planning and development activities to be entrusted to Panchayati Raj
Institutions.
d. District collector should be the chairman of zilaparishad.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
c and d only
52. కి్ంది వాటిల్లో బ్ల్వత్ రాయ్ మ హతా కమిటీ (1957) సిఫారస్ు….
a) ర్్ండడ టెైరో ప్ంచాయతీ రాజ్ సిస్ి్ం ఏరాపటట
b) గారమ్ ప్ంచాయతీ, జిల్ాో పర ష్త్ ల్కు డెైర్కి గా ఎనిేకల్ు ప్ టిట్ం
c) ప్ంచాయతీ రాజ్ ల్ే పరణాళికల్ు, అభవృదిా అన్సే ఏరాపటట చేస్ుకోవచుే
d) కల్కిరే జిల్ాో పర ష్త్ ఛెైరమన్
సి, డి ల్ు మ్ాతరమే
53. In the context of establishing a new High Court of the state, which of the following
statement is correct?
The President of India, after the authorization by the Parliament, through a
notification can create new High Court for a state.
53. కొతి హ ైకోరుి ఏరాపటట చేసే విష్య్ంల్ల, కి్ంది వాటిల్లో ఏది స్ర్బనది?
భారత రాష్ిరపత్త, ప్ార ోమ ్ంట్ అనుమ్త్తతో, పరకటన దాురా ఒక కొతి హ ైకోరుి ను ఒక రాష్ిర్ంల్ల ఏరాపటట
చేయవచుే.
54. Regarding National Electoral Transformation (NETA) Application, sometimes seen in the
news, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
a. It has been conceptualized and developed by the Election Commission of India.
b. It allows voters to rate and review their political representatives.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Only b
54. నేష్నల్ ఎల్లటోరల్ టార న్ఫరేమష్న్ (ఎన్ ఎఫ్ టి ఏ ) వారిల్లో అపవపడపవపడడ కనిప్ిస్ుి ్ంది. ఆ
విష్య్ంల్ల కి్ందపరకటనల్లో ఏది స్ర్బనది?
a.అది భారతీయ ఎల్క్షన్ కమిష్న్ చేత ఆల్లచి్ంపబ్డి, అభవృదిా చేయబ్డడతత్ంది
b.అది ఓటరోకు తామ్య ఎనుేకొనే రాజకీయ అభయరుథ లిే రేట్ చేయడానికి, ర్వూయ చేయడానికి
అవకాస్మిస్ుి ్ంది
కి్ంది వాటిల్లో స్ర్బన స్మ్ాధానానిే ఎనుేకో్ండి
బి మ్ాతరమే
55. Under which two states the President’s Rule is yet to be imposed?
Telangana and Chhattisgarh
55. కి్ంది ఏ ర్్ండడ రాషాిర ల్ల్ల రాష్ిరపత్త రూల్ ఇ్ంకా విధి్ంపబ్డల్ేదు?
తెల్్ంగాణ, ఛతీిస్ ఘడ్
56. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during the national Emergency?
Articles 20 and 21
56. కి్ంది ఆర ికల్్ ల్ల ఏది నేష్నల్ ఎమ్ర్ెన్స్ స్మ్య్ంల్ల స్ప్ ్్ండ్ చేయబ్డరాదు?
ఆర ికల్ 20, 21
57. Which State Governments have not provided 50 percent reservations for women in local
bodies?
Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Goa and Jammu and Kashmir
57. ఏ రాష్ిర పరభయతాుల్ు ఆడవాళళకు ల్లకల్ బ్ాడీల్ల్ల 50 శాత్ం ర స్రేుష్న్ ఇవుట్ం ల్ేదు?
ఉతిరపరదేశ్, హరాయనా, గబవా, జమ్యమకాశీమర్
58. Match the following listsList- I List- II
(Outstanding Parliamentarian) (Year of Award)
a. Hukum Dev Narayan 1. 2016
b. Ghulam Nabi Azad 2. 2014
c. Dinesh Trivedi 3. 2017
d. BhartruhariMahtab 4. 2015
Codes-
a b c d
2 4 1 3
58. కి్ంది పటిికల్ను జతపరచ్ండి—-
పటిిక – I పటిిక – II
(అవవట్ సాి ్ండి్ంగ్ ప్ార ోమ ్ంటేర యన్) స్్ంవత్ర్ం
a.హుకుమ్ దేవ్ నారాయన్ 1. 2016
b.గయల్ామ్ నబి ఆజాద్ 2. 2014
c.దినేశ్ త్తరవేది 3. 2017
d.భరిృహర మ్హబ్త్ 4. 2015
కోడ్్-
a b c d
2 4 1 3
59. Which article of the Indian Constitution states that all states and local bodies shall
endeavor to provide instructions in mother language in the primary stages of education?
Article 350 A
59. భారత రాజాయ్ంగ ఆర ికల్్ ల్ల కి్ంది వాటిల్లో ఏది రాష్ిర ల్లకల్ బ్ాడీల్ల్ల మ్ాతృభాష్ల్ల ప్ార థమిక
విదయను అ్ంది్ంచాల్ని చెపవి్ంది?
ఆర ికల్ 350 ఏ
60. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer codes given below the lists (in
respect of Andhra Pradesh)-
List- I List- II
a. Gaze at the Largest Nandhi 1. Tirumala- Tirupati
b. The Lord of the Seven Hills 2. Ahobilam Temple – Karnool
c. The Saviour of Prahalada 3. Veerabhadra Temple – Lepakshi
d. Jyotrilingas 4.Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple- Nallamala
Hills (Srisailam)
Codes:
a b c d
3 1 2 4
60. కి్ంది పటిికల్ను జతపర చి కి్ంద ఇచిేన కోడోల్ల్ంచి స్ర్బన స్మ్ాధాన్ం ఎ్ంచుకో్ండి.(ఆ్ంధ్రపరదేశ్
కు స్్ంబ్్ంధి్ంచి)
పటిిక- I పటిిక- II
a.అత్త ప్ దు న్ంది చూపవల్కు 1. త్తరుమ్ల్ – త్తరుపత్త
b.ఏడడకొ్ండల్ సాుమి 2. అహో బిల్్ం గయడి, కరూేల్ు
c.పరహాో దుని రక్షకుడడ 3. వీరభదార ల్య్ం, ల్ేప్ాక్షి
d.జయయత్తర ో్ంగ్ం(శీరశ బల్్ం) 4.మ్లిోకారుె నసాుమి గయడి- నల్ోమ్ల్ కొ్ండల్ు
కోడ్్-
a b c d
3 1 2 4
61. Consider the following pairs.
Art Forms Corresponding States
a. Hozagiri Tripura
b. SirmouriNatti Rajasthan
c. Chakri Himachal Pradesh
d. ChandiShilli Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a and d only
61. కి్ందిజతల్ను పర గణ ్ంచ్ండి…….
కళల్ు రాషాిర ల్ు
a.హో జగ ర త్తరపవర
b.సిరౌమర నాటిి రాజసాథ న్
c.చకిర హిమ్ాచల్ పరదేశ్
d.ఛ్ందిశిలి సికికమ్
ఆ జతల్లో స్ర్బన జత పడుది ఏది?
ఏ, డిల్ు మ్ాతరమే
62. Scientific study of soil isPedology
62. మ్టిి ని గయర ్ంచిన స ై్ంటిఫిక స్ిడీ ……….
ప్ డోల్జీ
63. Consider the following pairs.
Indian Border Country
Dawki- Tamabil China
Which of the pairs given above is incorrectly matched?
63. కి్ంది జతల్ను పర గణ ్ంచ్ండి……భారత ఎల్ో దేశ్ం
దాుకీ – తమ్బిల్ చెైనా
కి్ందివాటిల్లో ఏ జత స్ర గా కల్పబ్డల్ేదు?
64. Which state disaster management authority has been honoured with the converted
SKOCH award 2018?
Odisha
64. ఏ రాష్ిర డిసాస్ిర్ మేనేజమ ్ంట్ అథార టీ 2018 కి గానూ ఎస్ క్ ఓ సి హ చ్ అవారుు గ్ల్ుచుకొ్ంది?
ఒడిసా్
65.What is the thin layer of gases around the earth called?
Atmosphere
65. భూమిని ఆవర ్ంచుకొని ఉ్ండే పల్చటి గాలి ప్ర రల్ను ఏమ్్ంటారు?
అటామసిీయర్
66. Agenda- 21 is related to?
Sustainable Development
66. అజ్్ండా -21 దేనికి స్్ంబ్్ంధి్ంచి్ంది?
స్స టినబ్యల్ అభవృదిా
67. Ayushman Bharat Yojana is related to which sector ?
Health
67. ఆయుష్మాన్ భారత్ దేనికి చ ెందినది?
ఆరబగయ్ం

Government Pharmacist G previous question paper with fully solved 

68. Which film got the 65thNational Film Award 2017 in the best feature film category?
Village Rockstars
68. 65 వ దేశీయ ఫిల్మా ఫేర్ అవమరడులు ౨౦౧౭లో గెలిచిన చలనచిత్రమేది?
విల్ేజ్ రాక సాి ర్్
69. Kumbh has been organized in 2019 at which place ?
Prayagraj
69. 14వ కుెంభమేళ 2018లో ఎకకడ జరిగిెంది?
పరయాగ్ రాజ్
70. Which layer of atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
Stratosphere
70. వమతావరణెంలోని ఏ పొ రలో ఓజోన్ పొ ర ఉెంట ెంది?
సాి రొి సిీయర్
71 Which of the following disease may be caused due to deficiency of Vitamin C?
Scurvy
71. కిెందివమటిలో ఏజబ్ుు విటమిన్ -సి లోపెం వలల రమవచచు?
స్కరీు
72. Which of the following states has the longest coastline?
Andhra Pradesh
72. కిెందివమటిలో ఏ రమష్మ
రానికిపెద్
దసముద్రతీరెంఉెంది?
ఆ్ంధ్రపరదేశ్
73. In which year Madras Mahajana Sabha was established?
1884
73. మదార సచమహాజనసభ ఏ సెంవత్సరెంస్మా
పిెంపబ్డ ెంది?
1884
74. Which of the following is the highest peak?
Kangchenjunga Peak
74. కిెందివమటిలోఎత తైనశిఖరమేది?
క్ంచనె్ంగాశిఖర్ం
75. Which of the following is related to Baudhayana ?
Pythagoras Theorem
75. . కిెందివమటిలోఏదిబ్ౌదా
ాయానానికిసెంబ్ెంధిెంచిెంది?
ప్ ైథాగరసిథయర్ం
76 .What is the full form of NSG?
National Security Guard
76. ఎన్ ఎస్ జియొకక వివరణ ఏమిటి?
నేష్నల్ స కూయర టీగార్ు
77. Where the Golden Temple is situated at?

Amritsar
77. బ్ెంగమరడకోవెలనెలకొననఊరేది?
అమ్ృతస్ర్
78. Which of the following planets has no natural satellite?
Venus
78. కిెందిగ్రహాలలోదేనికిపమర కృతికఉపగ్రహెంలేద్చ?
శుకుర డడ (వీనస్)
79. Nerves of the brain responsible for sending and receiving information
Neurons
79) మ దడడల్లస్మ్ాచారమ్యనుప్ంప్ి్ంచుట,తీస్ుకొనుటవ్ంటిభాధ్యతల్నునిరుహి్ంచే
నరాల్నుఏమ్్ంటారు.
నూయరాన్్
80. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality
between males and females in a society at a given time?
Sex ratio

80) ఇచిేన కాల్పర మిత్త య్ందు స్మ్ాజoల్లని స్ి,ీ పవరుష్తల్ యొకక స్మ్ానతుమ్యను
కొలిచే మ్యఖయమ ైన సా్ంఘిక స్ూచిక
లి్ంగ రేటట
81. The main aim of “Janani SurakshaYojana” which is the programme by the Family
Welfare programme?

Reducing maternal and neonatal morality
81. కుటట్ంబ్ స్్ంక్షేమ్ కారయకరమ్మ ైన జనని స్ురక్ష యోజన యొకక మ్యఖయ ఉదేుశయమ్య.
మ్ాతృ మ్రణాల్ు, న ల్ల్లపవ శిశుమ్రణాల్ రేటట తగ ా్ంచుట
82. Which is the first country to initiate a Family Planning program in the world?
India
82) పరప్ంచమ్యల్ల కుటట్ంబ్ నియ్ంతరణ ను ప్ార ర్ంభ్ంచిన మొటి మొదటి దేశమ్య.
ఇ్ండియా
83. What percentage of the world population India accounts for?
16.7 per cent
83) పరప్ంచ జనాభా శాత్ంల్ల భారత దేశ జనాభా శాత్ం ఎ్ంత
16.7 శాతమ్య
84. The average number of persons per unit area, such as a square kilometre, is termed as
Population density
84) ఒక చదరపవ కిల్లమీటరు ల్ల ఉ్ండే స్గటట జనాభాను ఏమ్్ంటారు.
జనాభా సా్ందరత
85. The visual acuity of 20/200 is characteristic feature of
Legally blind
85) దృశయ తీక్షణత (విజుయల్ అకుయటి) 20 / 200 ఈ కిర్ంది వార ల్ల ఎవుర ల్క్షణమ్య
చటి పర్ంగ అ్ంధ్తుమ్య
86. The units used in measuring hearing loss is
Decibels
86) వినికిడి ల్లపమ్యను కొలిచే పరమ్ాణ కమ్య
డెసిబ్యల్్
87. The programme which places emphasis on group financing for poverty alleviation by
organizing the rural poor into self-help groups (SHGs) is
SGSY
87) ప్ేదర కమ్య నిరూమలి్ంచుటకు గారమీణ ప్ేదల్ల్ల స్ుయ్ం – స్హాయక బ్ృ్ందాల్ను
ఏరపర చి వాటికి ఆర ాక స్హాయమ్య చేయయటే పరధానమ్యగా భావి్ంచే కారయకరమ్మ్య
ఎస్.జి. ఎస్.వ ై
88. A perfect market is characterized by
Large number of buyers and sellers
88. పర పూరణమ ైన అ్ంగడి యొకక ల్క్షణమ్య.
అమేమవారు,కొనేవారు ప్ దు స్్ంఖయల్ల ఉ్ండడటమ్య
89 . Extension education is basically meant for
Rural people
89. విస్ిరణ విదయ ప్ార ధ్మిక్ంగా ఎవర కి ఉదేుశి్ంపబ్డినది.
గారమీణ పరజల్కు
90. Apart from increasing the nutritional status, the Mid Day Meal programme also aims at
increasing
School attendance
90 ప్ర ష్ణ సాథ యితో ప్ాటట ఈ ఈ కారయకరమ్మ్యల్ల ఒక దానిే ప్ ్ంచాల్నే ఉదేుశయమ్యతో
మ్ధాయహే భోజన పధ్కమ్య చేపటాి రు.
బ్డిల్ల హాజరు
91. Vividh Bharati, AIR was started to counter the popularity of

Radio Ceylon
91. ’వివిధ్ భారత్త’ ఏ ఆకాశవాణ కిఎదురుగా మొదల్ెై్ంది?

రేడియోసిల్లన్
92. The book, “Everybody loves a good drought” is written by
P. Sainath
92. “ఎవిుర బ్డీల్వ్్ గయడ్ డార ఫ్టి” పవస్ిక రచయిత……..

ప్ి. సాయినాథ్
93. Who launched India’s first printed newspaper, ‘The Bengal Gazette’?
James Augustus Hickey
93. భారతదేశ్ మొదటిమ్యదిరత వారాి పత్తరక ’బ్ె్ంగాల్ గ్జ్ట్’ ను వ ల్ువర ్ంచి్ందెవరు?

జేమ్్ అగస్ిస్ హికీ
94. Which of the following newspaper is not associated with Gandhiji?
Mathrubhoomi
94. కి్ందిపత్తరకల్లో గా్ంధ జీ గార తో స్్ంబ్్ంధ్్ం కలిగ ్ందిఏది?
మ్ాతృభూమి
95. Identify the correct chronology of the following television networks in India
Doordarshan, Star, Zee, Sony
95. భారతదేశ్ంల్లని టెలివిజన్ న ట్ వర్క ను కాల్ానుగయణ్ంగా గయర ి్ంచ్ండి…….
దూరదరశన్, సాి ర్, జీ, సర న్స
96. Burrakatha is a traditional folk dance of which state?
Andhra Pradesh
96. బ్యఱ్ఱకథ ఏ రాషాిర నికిచె్ందిన సా్ంపరదాయిక జానపద నృతయరీత్త ?
ఆ్ంధ్రపరదేశ్
97. The process of examining every single member of the population is called
Census
97. జనభాల్లని పరత్త వయకిిని పరీక్షి్ంచాడానిే …………
స న్న్ (జనాభాల్ెకకల్ు)
98. The term PDF stands for
Portable document format
98. ప్ిడిఎఫ్ అ్ంటే……….
ప్ర రిబ్యల్ డాకుయమ ్ంట్ ఫార్మట్
99. Prasarbharti came into being in the year
1997
99. పరసార భారత్త …………………… ఈ స్్ంవత్ర్ం ను్ంచి ప్ార ర్ంభమ ై్ంది
1997
100. The punishment for civil detention is ordered for
Contempt of court
100. ప్ ర నిరై్ంధ్ద్ండనను దేనికి విధి్ంచారు?
నాయయసాథ న ధికకరణ

101. The first Indian silent film was
Raja Harishchandra
101. మొదటిభారతీయ మ్ూకీమ్ూవీ ఏది?
రాజా హర శే్ందర
102.Which of the following bank was founded by Lala Lajpat Rai at Lahore in 1894-
Punjab National Bank
102. కి్ంది బ్ాయ్ంకుల్లో ల్ాల్ా ల్జపత్త రాయ్ గారు ల్ాహో ర్1894 ల్ల సాథ ప్ి్ంచారు?
ప్ంజాబ్ నేష్నల్ బ్ాయ్ంక
103. Identify the correct sequence of the following on the basis of establishment year
LinkedIn, Facebook,Youtube, Twitter
103. కి్ందివాటిని ప్ార ర్ంభమ ైన కాల్ానిే ఆధ్ర్ంగా చేస్ుకొని అమ్రే్ండి
లి్ంక్డిోన్,ఫేస్ బ్యక, యూటయయబ్,టిుటిర్
104 Information is
Processed data
104.స్మ్ాచార్ం అ్ంటే….
.ప్రర స స్ు డాటా
105 Andhra Pradesh Public Libraries Act enacted in
1960
105.ఆ్ంధ్రపరదేశ్ పబిో క ల్ెైబ్రరీ ఆకి మొదల్ెై్ంది….
1960
106 An Act is a
Law
106. ఆకి అనేది…..
ల్ా
107 The duration of Copyright of a published book in India
Lifetime of the author plus 60 years after the date of his/her death
107.భారతదేశ్ంల్ల ఒకపవస్ిక్ం కాప్్ ర్బటట ఎ్ంతకాల్్ం…….
రచయిత జీవిత కాల్్ం తో ప్ాటట , మ్రణాన్ంతర్ం ౬౦ స్్ంవత్రాల్ు
108 Question Number: 36
Annie Besant wasa. The President of the Theosophical Society in the year of 1907.
b. Was selected as the first woman president of the Indian National Congress
in 1917.
c. The founder of Central Hindu College at Varanasiin 1898.
Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below?
All of above.
108.. అనిేబిస ్ంట్……
a.థియసాఫికల్ సర స ైటీకి 1907ల్ల ప్ రసిడె్ంట్
b.ఇ్ండియన్ నేష్నల్ కా్ంగ్రస్ యొకక తొలి మ్హిళా ప్ రసిడె్ంట్
c.1898ల్ల స ్ంటరల్ హి్ందు కాల్ేజి వారణాసి కి వయవసాథ పకురాల్ు
కి్ంది వాటిల్లో స్ర్బనవి ఏవి కోడో ఆధార్ంగాగయర ి్ంచ్ండి
ప్ ైవన్సే
109 . Deleted
110. National Library Week in India starts on date of birth of
Jawaharlal Nehru
110. భారతదేశీయ గ్ంథాల్యాల్ వారబత్వ్ం ఎవర జనమదిన్ంతో ప్ార ర్ంభమ్ౌతాయి ర ?
జవహరల్ాల్ న హరూ
111 Blog is
Website
111. బ్ాో గయ అ్ంటే….
వ బ్ స ైట్
112 Hash Tag is used at
Twitter
112. హాష్ టాగ్ దేనికి వాడతారు?
టిుటిర్
113 MBO stands for
Management by Objectives
113.ఎమ్ బీ ఓ అ్ంటే….?
మేనేజ్మ్ంట్ బ్ెై ఆబ్ెకిివ్్
114 One which is used for statistical computing
R
.సాి టసిికల్ క్ంపూయటి్ంగ్ ల్ల వాడబ్డేది ఏది?
ఆర్

115 E-PG Pathshala is hosted at
INFLIBNET, Ahemdabad
115.ఇ- ప్ి జి ప్ాఠశాల్ ఎకకడ న ల్కొ్ంది?
ఐ ఎన్ ఎఫ్ ఎల్ ఐ బి ఎన్ ఇ టి, అహమదాబ్ాద్
116 Solr is related to
Indexing and searching
116.ఎస్ ఓ ఎల్ ఆర్ దేనికి స్్ంబ్్ంధి్ంచి్ంది?
ఇ్ండెకి్్ంగ్, స ర ే్ంగ్
117 The measuring unit of Clock speed is
Hertz
117. “కాో క స్పడ్” కొలిచే పర కర్ం…..
హ ర్ి జ్

118 The communication between Mouse and computer is
Simplex
118.గణక య్ంతార నికి (క్ంపూయటర్) మ్ౌస్ కు గల్ కమ్ూయనికేష్న్ …..
సి్ంప్ ోక్
119 Orbicom is the international network of
UNESCO
119.ఓర ైకామ్ అనేది దేని అ్ంతరాె తీయ న ట్ వర్క ?
యయ న సర క
120 The format in which data travels over network is called
DELETED
120. న ట్ వర్క ల్ల డాటా పయని్ంచే విధానానిే , ఆఫార్మట్ ను
తొల్గ ్ంచడబ్డినది
121 The latest edition of Bluetooth is
Version 5.1
121..బ్ూో టయత్ ల్ల స్ర కొతి వ రిన్ ఏది?
వెర్ష న్5.1
122 The Price is
Cost plus benefit
122.వ ల్ అ్ంటే……(ది ప్ ైస్
ీ)
ఖరుే + ల్ాభ్ం
123 Datum is
a single Piece of information
123.డాటటన్ అ్ంటే…
ఒకే ఒక స్మ్ాచార్ం

124 National Virtual Library of India is lead by
IIT, Mumbai
124. నేష్నల్ వరూేువల్ ల్ెైబ్రరీ ఆఫ్ ఇ్ండియా …… చేతనడపబ్డడతో్ంది.
ఐ ఐ టి, మ్య్ంబ్ెై
125. Which state launched a “Sahulat” app to facilitate elderly voters?
Jammu and Kashmir
125. “స్హుల్త్” అనే ఆప్ ని ఏ రాష్ిర్ం వృదుా ల్కోస్్ం ఏరాపటటచేసి్ంది?
జమ్యమ, కాశీమర్
126. Manu Bhaker has won gold in ________ pistol event.
10 meters
126. మ్నుభాక్ర్ ………….. ప్ిస్ిల్ ఈవ ్ంట్ ల్ల బ్్ంగారు పతక్ం గ్లిచాడడ
10 మీటరుో
127.Who launched tip line feature to curb fake news ahead of lok sabha election?
Whatsapp
127. ల్లకస్భ ఎనిేకల్కు మ్య్ందు అస్తయవారిల్ు పరచార్ం కాకు్ండా ఎవరు టిప్ ల్ెైన్ ఫ్చర్ తయారు
చేశారు?
వాట్్ ఆప్
128. PM Narendra Modi honored by which country with its highest civilian award Zayed
Medal?
UAE
128. ప్ి. ఎమ్. నరే్ందరమోది కి జయాద్ మ డల్ అనే అత్త గొపప సివిలియన్ అవారుు ను ఏ రాజయ్ం
ఇచిే్ంది?
యయ ఏ ఇ
129. Indian Government declared to establish Terror Monitoring Group (TMG) in which
state?
Jammu and Kashmir
129. భారతదేశ పరభయతు్ం టెరరర్ మ్ానిటర ్ంగ్ గూరప్ ను ఏ రాష్ిర్ంల్ల ఏరాపటట చేసి్ంది?
జమ్యమ, కాశీమర్
130. Who has launched Shiksha Vani app?
CBSE
130. శిక్షా వాణ ని ఎవరు ప్ార ర్ంభ్ంచారు?
సి బి ఎస్ సి
131. Election Commission of India collaborated with which Indian agency for voter
awareness campaign?
Indian Railway
131. భారత ఎనిేకల్ స్్ంఘ్ం భారతదేశ్ంల్లని ఏ ఏజ్న్స్ తో కలిసి ఓటర్ అవార్ేస్ కా్ంప్ ైన్ చేసి్ంది?
ఇ్ండియన్ ర్బల్ేు
132. Which among the followings became the world’s highest polling station?
Tashigang
132. కి్ంది వాటిల్లో ఏది పరప్ంచ్ంల్లనే అత్త ఎతెతిన ప్ర లి్ంగ్ సేిష్న్?
తషిగా్ంగ్
133.“Conquer Exam, Be a Warrior” app developed by which state government?
Gujarat
133. “కా్ంకర్ ఎకా్మ్, బి అ వార యర్” అనే ఆప్ ను ఏ రాష్ిర పరభయతు్ం తయారుచేసి్ంది?
గయజరాత్
134. What is the name of the mission under which India built an anti- satellite weapon ‘ASAT’?
Mission Shakti
134. భారతదేశ్ం ఆ్ంటీ – సాటిల్ెైట్ వ పన్ అయిన ఏ- సాట్ ను ఏ మిష్నలో తయారు చేసి్ంది?
మిష్న్ శకిి
135.Who is the author of the book ‘Every Vote Counts – The Story of India’s Elections.’?
Navin Chawla
135. “ఎవుర వోట్ కౌ్ంటెడ్ – ది సరి ర ఆఫ్ ఇ్ండియా”అనే పవస్ిక రచయిత ఎవరు?
నవీన్ చావాో
136. Which of the following cities in India is known as the yoga capital of the world?
Rishikesh
136. కి్ంద ఇవుబ్డిన భారత దేశపవ నగరాల్ల్ల పరప్ంచ యోగా రాజధాని ఏది?
ర షికేష్
137. Who among the following is the first Indian to be elected as a FIFA Council member?
Praful Patel
137. ఎఫ్ ఐ ఎఫ్ ఏ కౌని్ల్ స్భయయనిగా ఎనుేకోబ్డు మొదటి భారతీయయడెవరు?
పరఫవల్ పటేల్
138. How many states have banned e cigarettes?
12
138. ఎనిే రాషాిర ల్ు ఇ- సిగర్టటి ను నిషేధి్ంచాయి?
12
139.Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer codes given below the lists-
List- I List- II
a.First person to go into space 1. Valentina Teshchenko
b.first Indian to go into space 2. Yuri Gagarin
c.First woman to go into space 3. Laika
d.First dog to go into space 4. Rakesh Sharma
Codes:
a b c d
2 4 1 3
139.. కి్ందునే పటిికలిే జతపరచి కోడో స్హాయ్ంతో స్ర్బన స్మ్ాధానానిే ఎనుేకో్ండి?
పటిిక I పటిిక – II
a.అ్ంతర క్షయాన్ం చేసిన మొదటి వయకిి 1.వాల్్ంటీన టేసర కచినల
b.అ్ంతర క్షయాన్ం చేసిన మొదటి భారతీయయడడ 2.యూరీ గ్గర న్
c.అ్ంతర క్షయాన్ం చేసిన మొదటి స్ి 3.
ీ ల్ెైకా
d.అ్ంతర క్షయాన్ం చేసిన మొదటి కుకక 4.రాకేష్ శరమ
కోడ్్
a b c d
2 4 1 3
140. What is the full form of LEO Satellite?
Low Earth Orbit
140.. ఎల్ ఇ ఓ అ్ంటే ఏ్ంటి?
ల్ల ఎర్ి ఆర ైట్
141. Which device is used to measure current in a circuit?
Ammeter
141. స్రూకుట్ ల్ల ఉనే కర్్ంట్ ను కొల్వడానికి వాడే పర కర్ం ఏది?
అమీమటర్
142. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘QR Code’-
a. QR is short for Quick Response and can be read quickly by a cell phone.
b. QR code is the trademark for a type of matrix barcode first designed in 1996 for the
automotive industry in Japan.
Select the correct codeOnly a
142. కూయ ఆర్ కోడ్ కు స్్ంబ్్ంధి్ంచి కి్ంది పరకటనలిే పర గణ ్ంచ్ండి
a.కూయ ఆర్ అ్ంటే కిుక ర్సాపన్్ అని అరథ్ం. దానిే తురగా స ల్ ఫర న్ చదవగల్దు.
b.కూయ ఆర్ కోడ్ 1996 ల్ల ఆటోమోటివ్ ఇ్ండస్ిర యొకక మ్ాటిరక్ బ్ార్ కోడ్ గా జప్ాన్ తయారు చేసిన
టేరడ్ మ్ార్క
స్ర్బన కోడ్ ను గ్ల్వ్ండి
ఏ మ్ాతరమే
143. UNNATI programme is related to?
Nanosatellites
143. యయ ఎన్ ఎన్ ఏ టి ఐ ప్రర గారమ్ దేనికి స్్ంబ్్ంధి్ంచినది?
నానల సాటొఇల్ెైట్్
144.Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Goldilocks Zone’-
a. It refers to the habitable zone around a star where the temperature is just right – not
too hot and not too cold.
b. Earth is in the habitable zone of the sun – one of the reasons our planet has liquid
water like oceans and lakes.
Both a and b
144. కి్ంది పరకటనలిే “గబలిుల్ాక జయన్” గయర ్ంచి పరగణ ్ంచ్ండి
a.హాబిటబ్యల్ జయన్ గయర ్ంచిఎకకడ వాతావరణ్ం ఎకుకవగానల , తకుకవగానల ఉ్ండదో అది వివర స్ుి ్ంది.
b.భూమి స్ూరుయడి హాబిటెట్ జయన్ ల్ల ఉ్ంది- భూమి మీద స్మ్యదార ల్ు, చెఱ్ువవల్ు మొదల్ెైన
దరవరూప్ంల్ల న్సరు్ండటానికి కారణ్ం
స్ర్బన జవాబ్యను గయర ి్ంచ్ండి
ఏ,బి లు రెెండూ
145. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘VGA’-
a. It stands for “Video Graphics Array.”
b. A standard VGA connection has 15 pins and is shaped like a trapezoid.
c. The VGA standard was originally developed by MICROSOFT in 1987.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
DELETED
145. వి జి ఏ గయర ్ంచి కి్ందిపరకటనల్ను గమ్ని్ంచ్ండి
అ్ంటే వీడియో గారఫిక్ ఆర్
a. ఒక సాి ్ండర్ు వి జి ఏ ల్ల టార ప్ జయడ్ ల్ా్ంటి రూప్ంల్ల 15 ప్ినుేల్తో కూడినది
b. వి జి ఏ సాి ్ండర్ు ను మొదట మ ైకోర సాఫ్టి 1987ల్ల తయారుచేసి్ంది
కి్ంది పరకటనల్లో ఏది/వి స్ర్బనది/వి?
తొల్గ ్ంచడబ్డినది
146. Who invented Nobel Prizes?
Alfred Nobel
146. నలబ్యల్ బ్హుమ్త్త ని కనొగొనేదెవరు?
ఆల్్రడ్ నలబ్యల్
147. Who among the following is behind the first black hole image?
Katie Bouman
147.కి్ందునే వార ల్ల మొదటి బ్ాో క హో ల్ ఇమేజ్ వ నుక నునేదెవరు?
క్బట్ బ్ౌమ్ాన్
148.Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Champaran Movement’-
a. It was the first mass movement started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917.
b. It was a farmer’s uprising that took place in Champaran district of Gujrat, India
during the British colonial period.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
Only a
148. చ్ంపరన్ ఉదయమ్ విష్య్ం ల్ల కి్ంది వాటిని గమ్ని్ంచ్ండి
a. అది మ్హాతామగా్ంధి గారు 1917ల్ల ప్ార ర్ంభ్ంచిన మొదటి ఉదయమ్్ం
b. ర్బతతల్ ఉదారణ కోస్్ం చ్ంపరన్ గయజరాత్ జిల్ాో ల్ల, ఆ్ంగేోయయల్ ప్ాల్నాకాల్్ంల్ల జర గ ్ంది
కి్ంది వాటిల్లో స్ర్బనది/వి ఏది/వి
ఏ మ్ాతరమే
149.Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Salt March’-
a. The Salt March began on March 12, 1930 and continued till April 6, 1930. It was a 24-
day non-violent march led by Mahatma Gandhi.
b. Salt March, which was non-violent in nature, is historically significant as it led to the
mass Civil Disobedience Movement.
c. The Salt March began with around 80 people, but as more and more people joined in
for the 390 km-long journey, it grew into a strong force of 50,000 people.
All of the above
149. ఉపవప మ్ార్ే విష్య్ంల్ల కి్ంది వాటిల్లో స్ర్బనదేది?
a.ఉపవప మ్ారే12, 1930 న ప్ార ర్ంభమ ై దాకా ఏప్ిరల్ 6, 1930 సాగ ్ంది. అది మ్హాతామగా్ంధ గారు 24
రబజుల్ ప్ాటట చేసిన జర గ న అహి్ంసాతమక మ్ార్ే
b.సాల్ి మ్ార్ే అహి్ంసాతమక మ ైనది, దాని తరాుత శాస్నలల్ో్ంఘన ఉదయమ్ానికి దార తీసి్ంది
c.సాల్ి మ్ార్ే దాదాపవ 80మ్్ంది మ్నుష్తల్తో , చాల్ా మ్్ంది కలిసి 390 కి.మీ పరయాణ్ం చేసిన తరాుత
ఆ గయ్ంపవ దాదాపవ50,000 మ్్ంది అయాయరు.
కి్ంది జవాబ్యల్లో ఏది/వి స్ర్బనది/వి
ప్ ైవన్సే
150. Arrange the following events in the order of their chronology
a. Muslim league
b. Bengal partition
c. Surat session
d. Indian National Congress
Choose the correct optiond, b,a, c
150. కాల్కరమ్్ంగా కి్ంది స్్ంఘటనలిే అమ్రే్ండి
a.మ్యస్ోమ్ ల్లగ్
b.బ్ె్ంగాల్ విభజన
c.స్ూరత్ స ష్న్
d.ఇ్ండియన్ నేష్నల్ కా్ంగ్రస్
స్ర్బనస్మ్ాధానమివు్ండి
d,b,a, c

Top 2 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmaceutics

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Top 2 books for GPAT preparation - Pharmaceutics

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmaceutics Drug Inspector DI exam: Looking for a Pharmaceutics book? You must consult a good pharma book to have a good knowledge of different Pharmaceutics topics. Here in this post i am going to list some of the best Pharmaceutics books.

Top 2 books for GPAT preparation - Pharmaceutics

MARTIN’S PHYSICAL PHARMACY AND PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCES

Physical Chemical and Biopharmaceutical Principles in the Pharmaceutical Sciences
Editor
PATRICK J. SINKO, PhD, RPh
Professor II (Distinguished)
Parke-Davis Chair Professor in Pharmaceutics and Drug Delivery
Ernest Mario School of Pharmacy
Rutgers, The State University of New Jersey
Piscataway, New Jersey
Assistant Editor
YASHVEER SINGH, PhD
Assistant Research Professor
Department of Pharmaceutics
Ernest Mario School of Pharmacy
Rutgers, The State University of New Jersey
Piscataway, New Jersey

Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, a Wolters Kluwer business.
351 West Camden Street
Baltimore, MD 21201
530 Walnut St.
Philadelphia, PA 19106

About the Author:

Professor Martin always demanded the best of himself, his students, and his colleagues. The fact that the subsequent and current editions of Martin’s Physical Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences have remained faithful to his vision of scientific excellence as applied to understanding and applying the principles underlying the pharmaceutical sciences is indeed a most appropriate tribute to Professor Martin’s memory. It is in that spirit that this fiftieth anniversary edition is formally dedicated to the memory of that visionary and creative pioneer in the discipline of physical pharmacy, Alfred N. Martin.

Chapters:

INTERPRETIVE TOOLS 1
2 STATES OF MATTER 17
3 THERMODYNAMICS 54
4 DETERMINATION OF THE PHYSICAL PROPERTIES
OF MOLECULES 77
5 NONELECTROLYTES 109
6 ELECTROLYTE SOLUTIONS 129
7 IONIC EQUILIBRIA 146
8 BUFFERED AND ISOTONIC SOLUTIONS 163
9 SOLUBILITY AND DISTRIBUTION PHENOMENA 182
10 COMPLEXATION AND PROTEIN BINDING 197
11 DIFFUSION 223
12 BIOPHARMACEUTICS 258
13 DRUG RELEASE AND DISSOLUTION 300
14 CHEMICAL KINETICS AND STABILITY 318
15 INTERFACIAL PHENOMENA 355
16 COLLOIDAL DISPERSIONS 386
17 COARSE DISPERSIONS 410
18 MICROMERITICS 442
19 RHEOLOGY 469
20 PHARMACEUTICAL POLYMERS 492
21 PHARMACEUTICAL BIOTECHNOLOGY 516
22 ORAL SOLID DOSAGE FORMS 563
23 DRUG DELIVERY AND TARGETING

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Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

Textbook by Alfonso R. Gennaro and Joseph P. Remington

Contents

Chapter 1 Information resources in pharmacy and the pharmaceutical sciences 1
Robin H. Bogner, PhD and
Sharon Giovenale, MSLS
Chapter 2 Analysis of medicinals 9
Raymond D. Skwierczynski, PhD
Chapter 3 Quality assurance and control 29
John H. Parker, PhD and
John E. Enders, PhD, MBA
Chapter 4 Stability of pharmaceutical products 37
Allan D. Bokser, PhD and
Patrick B. O’Donnell, PhD
Chapter 5 Bioavailability and bioequivalence 51
Steven B. Johnson, PharmD
Chapter 6 Dissolution 63
Vijai Kumar, MS, MBA and
Praveen Hiremath, PhD
Chapter 7 Modern-day drug discovery and
development 81
Rick G. Schnatz, PharmD
Chapter 8 The New Drug Approval Process 93
Linda A. Felton, PhD and
Dennis W. Raisch, PhD, RPh
Chapter 9 Metrology and pharmaceutical
calculations 101
Roger L. Schnaare, PhD and
Shelly J. Prince, PhD
Chapter 10 Statistics 133
Sanford Bolton, PhD and
Richard Hirsch, PhD
Chapter 11 Molecular structure, properties and
states of matter 177
Thomas Rades, PhD,
Keith C. Gordon, PhD and
Kirsten Graeser, PhD
Chapter 12 Thermodynamics 207
Timothy S. Wiedmann, PhD
Chapter 13 Solutions and phase equilibria 219
Pardeep K. Gupta, PhD
Chapter 14 Separation methods 241
Loyd V. Allen, Jr., PhD, RPh
Chapter 15 Ionic solutions and electrolytic equilibria 257
Barbara R. Conway, PhD
Chapter 16 Tonicity, osmoticity, osmolality,
osmolarity 277
Andrew Ingham, MRPharmS, PhD and
Cathy Y. Poon, PharmD
Chapter 17 Chemical kinetics 301
Rodney J. Wigent, PhD
Chapter 18 Complex formation 317
Thorsteinn Loftsson, MSPharm, MSc, PhD
and Marcus E. Brewster, PhD
Chapter 19 Interfacial phenomena 329
Paul M. Bummer, PhD and
Yvonne Perrie, PhD
Chapter 20 Colloidal dispersions 343
Bill J. Bowman, RPh, PhD,
Clyde M. Ofner III, PhD, Hans Schott, PhD
and Yvonne Perrie, PhD
Chapter 21 Coarse dispersions 371
James Swarbrick, DSc, PhD,
Joseph T. Rubino, PhD, RPh and
Orapin P. Rubino, PhD
Chapter 22 Rheology 393
Lawrence H. Block, PhD
Chapter 23 Powders 411
Yi-Bo Wang and
Robert O. Williams III, PhD
Chapter 24 Solutions, Emulsions, Suspensions,
and Extracts 435
Michael M. Crowley, PhD
Chapter 25 Sterilization Processes and Sterility
Assurance 469
James Agalloco, BEChE, MSChE, MBA,
William G. Lindboem, Jr., PhD and Russell
E. Madsen, MS
Chapter 26 Parenteral Preparations 495
Michael J. Akers, PhD
Chapter 27 Pharmaceutical Compounding – USP
<797> Sterile Preparations 533
Catherine Cone, PharmD, BCPS,
Linda A. Felton, PhD, Amy Bachyrycz,
PharmD
Chapter 28 Ophthalmic Preparations 541
Masood Chowhan, PhD, John C. Lang,
PhD, Paul Missel, PhD
Chapter 29 Medicated Topicals 565
Lawrence H. Block, PhD
Chapter 30 Oral Solid Dosage Forms 581
Ahmed Adel Sakr, PhD and
Fars K. Alanazi, PhD
v
vi Contents
Chapter 31 Coating of Pharmaceutical Dosage
Forms 611
Stuart C. Porter, PhD
Chapter 32 Oral Modified-Release Drug Delivery
Systems 623
Ali R. Rajabi-Siahboomi, PhD,
Manish S. Rane, PhD and
Linda A. Felton, PhD
Chapter 33 Aerosols 633
John J. Sciarra, PhD and
Christopher J. Sciarra, BS, MS Industrial Pharmacy
Chapter 34 Biotechnology and Drugs 651
Ara H. DerMarderosian, PhD and
Zhiyu Li, PhD
Chapter 35 Pharmaceutical Packaging 667
C. Jeanne Taborsky, BSChem and
Kathleen Deiss, RN
Chapter 36 Pharmaceutical Excipients 683
William J. Reilly, Jr., MBA
Chapter 37 Basic pharmacokinetics and
pharmacodynamics 705
Raymond E. Galinsky, PharmD and Craig K. Svensson, PharmD, PhD
Chapter 38 Drug action and effect 727
Donald N. Franz, PhD
Chapter 39 Drug absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion 739
Michael R. Franklin, PhD
Chapter 40 Pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics in drug development 755
George L. Drusano, MD

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Top pharmacology books For G PAT and different pharmacist examinations are here please click on the Link Stay tuned for more great content on Pharmacy.

Important #Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence Acts & Years 😊👍 Pharma Student 

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Important Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence  Acts & Year Pharmacy Acts And Regulations

Hello readers. Here are the Important Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence  Acts & Years which are considered to be precious in Pharmacy Acts And Regulations. These are must for all the Pharmacist & Pharma Students in India and other countries. Here we present important acts and developments in pharmacy profession in India. Important acts and developments of pharmaceutical Jurisprudence are arranged in timeline for better understanding.Important Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence  Acts & Year Pharmacy Acts And Regulations

Very Important Pharmacy Acts:

Medicinal and Toilet preparations (Excise duties) Act 1955
Narcotic Drug and Psychotropic substances Act 1985 and Rules
Drug Price Control Order 1995

Drugs and CosmeticsAct, 1940

Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Patent act 1970

The PharmacyAct, 1948

Pharmawiki.in
Drug and Magic Remedies Act (Objectionable Advertisements) 1954.
Medical Termination of pregnancy Act 1970 and Rules1975.
Prevention of cruelty to animals Act 1960.
Factories Act 1948.
Minimum wages Act 1948.
Consumer protection Act with respect to pharmaceutical services
1949- Pharmacy Council of India (P.C.I.) was established under Pharmacy Act 1948
National Pharmaceutical policy 2002
Medical Termination of Pregnancy act 1971

Drugs and CosmeticsAct, 1940
As per the recommendations of DEC, to control the import, manufacture, distribution and sale of drugs and cosmetics, Drugs and CosmeticsAct, 1940 came into existence.

What is Pharmacy ACT about?

The PharmacyAct, 1948. The need of the qualified and trained pharmacists and their registration to respective Councils was re-emphasized by the Health and Development Committee, 1945 constituted under the Chairmanship of Justice Bhore. The foundations were laid for The Pharmacy Act based on the recommendations of Drugs Enquiry Committee and Health Survey and Development Committee. The Pharmacy Act, 1948, came into existence with the objective to regulate the profession and business of pharmacy.

Drugs and Magic Remedy (ObjectionableAdvertisements)Act, 1954
The uncontrolled and unrestricted advertisements related to drugs and medicines were freely published making obscene, false and exaggerated claims for their medicines. Hence, Drugs and Magic Remedy (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 came into existence with the objective to control and prohibit such advertisements of drugs which makes false claim for the drug or which gives the misleading information about the drug.

Medicinal and Toilet PreparationsAct, 1955
Alcohol is the important solvent in pharmaceutical industry. Each State had different sets of excise rules and different rates of duties on alcohol. To provide for the levy and uniform collection of duties of excise on the medicinal and toilet preparations, Medicinal and Toilet PreparationsAct, 1955 came into existence.

Timeline of Pharmacy Regulations 

1930: Government of India on 11th August 1930 , appointed a committee under the chairmanship of Late Col. R.N.Chopra to see into the problems of Pharmacy in India and recommend the measures to be taken.

1931: R.N. Chopra committee published its report in 1931. It was reported that a set of people known as compounders were filling the gap.

1932: Just after the publication of the report Prof. M. L. Schroff (Prof. Mahadeva Lal Schroff) initiated pharmaceutical education at the university level in the Banaras Hindu University. The Department of Pharmaceutical Engineering and Technology (Formerly Department of Pharmaceutics) was established in 1932 in BHU.

1935: In 1935 United Province Pharmaceutical Association was established which later converted into Indian Pharmaceutical Association.

1939: The Indian Journal of Pharmacy was started by Prof. M.L. Schroff in 1939.

1940: All India Pharmaceutical Congress Association was established in 1940.

1940: Drug and cosmetics Act 1940 and Rules 1945

The primary objective of the Act is to ensure that the drugs and cosmetics sold in India are safe, effective and conform to prescribed quality standards. The Drugs Act was formulated in 1940 in pursuance of recommendations of Chopra Committee constituted in 1930 by Government of India.

1940: Central Drugs Laboratory was established in Calcutta

1941: The first Drugs Technical Advisory Board (D.T.A.B.) under this Drugs act 1940 was constituted.

1948: Pharmacy Act 1948

An Act to regulate the education and profession of pharmacy. Constitution of national pharmacy council and state pharmacy councils for the aforesaid purpose.

1948: Indian Pharmacopoeial Committee was constituted under the chairmanship of late Dr. B.N. Ghosh.

1949: Pharmacy Council of India (P.C.I.) was established under Pharmacy Act 1948.

1954: The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954.

This act control advertisement of Drugs In India. It prohibit advertisement of magical remedies. It also prohibit advertisement for the cure of certain disease conditions.

1955: First Edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was published.

1955: The Medicinal & Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act 1955

It is an Act with provision for levy and collection of excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol, opium, Indian hemp (cannabis) or other narcotic drugs.

1960: The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960

1971: Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971

Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) (Amendment) Bill, 2020. The Bill seeks to extend the termination of pregnancy period from 20 weeks to 24 weeks, making it easier for women to safely and legally terminate an unwanted pregnancy.

1985: The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985

1995: Drugs Price control Order 1995

The objective of DPCO is to ensure availability of essential and life saving and prophylactic medicine of good quality at the reasonable prices. For the purpose of implementing provisions of DPCO, powers have been vested in NPPA.

2005: With the establishment of WTO and India being signatory to the Agreement on TradeRelated Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), several new legislations were passed for the protection of intellectual property rights to meet the international obligations. Patents Act, 1970 has been amended in the year 1995, 1999, 2002 and 2005 to meet its obligations under the TRIPS agreement. Thus, the Patent Amendment Act, 2005 is now fully in force and operative.

2008: Guidelines for Taking Action on Samples of Drugs Declared Spurious or Not of Standard Quality In The Light of Enhanced Penalties under The Drugs and Cosmetics (Amendment) Act, 2008

2011: The National Commission for Human Resources for Health Bill, 2011

2015: New Pharmacy Practice rules 2015 seek to address the rights of pharmacists. These regulation allow concept of Pharma clinic and finally gives pharmacists their rightful role in healthcare.

2019: CPA, Consumer protection Act First came in India in 1986, New act came in 2019

source:

Tell me about Drugs and Price Control Order:

Drugs and Price Control Order, 1970
Drugs and Price Control Order, 1970 came into existence to fix the maximum sale price of bulk drugs and to fix the retail sale price of the formulations in order to avoid the huge profiteering in drug manufacturing and distribution. The prices of life saving drugs were brought under direct control of Government.

What is GPAT & How to Prepare – Pharmacy GPAT Exam

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What is GPAT & How to Prepare

GPAT

GPAT stands for Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test which is an all India based entrance exam for admission of pharma graduates in the Masters in pharma programs, conducted by the National Testing Agency or the NTA. It is a national level exam and is conducted once a year. It provides the master programs in around 800 participating colleges and all the All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) affiliated colleges. They provide admission on the basis of these scores. The level of examination is that of a post-graduate. The mode of examinations is online, that is, students are supposed to appear for the computer-based examination on their respective exam centres as provided.  The exam is conducted in English medium only. It is a 3 hours long test with 125 multiple-choice questions. 4 marks are awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.  The registration fees are INR 1600 for all general candidates and INR 800 for SC, ST or OBC candidates. The candidates are supposed to attach a scanned copy of their graduation certificate or result at the time of registration along with the application form. Multiple applications from a single candidate would not be entertained. The registration for GPAT for this session started in November and the examination was held in February this year.

There are few guidelines defined by the National Testing Agency (NTA) regarding the eligibility for candidature to appear for these exams which are mentioned below:

  1. It is mandatory for all the GPAT aspirants to hold a bachelors’ degree in pharmacy or equivalence, from any recognized or affiliated university or institution.
  2. The candidates should also hold the certificate of the result of the bachelor’s degree before the commencement of the academic batches through GPAT.
  3. The applicants must compulsorily hold Indian citizenship.
  4. There are no age restrictions as such.

What is GPAT & How to Prepare

Syllabus for the GPAT examination:

The syllabus for GPAT is the restricted al that one studies in their bachelor’s degree which includes the following:

  1. Physical Chemistry
  2. Physical Pharmacy
  3. Organic Chemistry
  4. Pharmaceutical Chemistry
  5. Pharmaceutics
  6. Pharmacology
  7. Pharmacognosy
  8. Pharmaceutical Analysis
  9. Biochemistry
  10. Biotechnology
  11. Microbiology
  12. Pathophysiology
  13. Biopharmaceutics and pharmacokinetics
  14. Clinical pharmacy and therapeutics
  15. Human anatomy and physiology
  16. Pharmaceutical engineering
  17. Pharmaceutical management
  18. Pharmaceutical jurisprudence
  19. Dispensing and hospital pharmacy

 

How to prepare for the exam:

  1. Candidates shall be thorough with the syllabus first.
  2. Create a time plan and go accordingly
  3. Stick to your books and notes. Unnecessarily hitting different unknown or new books won’t be of much help. It would rather lead to more confusion.
  4. Prepare handmade notes
  5. Write and learn. Practicing the various chemical equations or reactions would help me better understanding and paced learning.
  6. Do not over stress yourselves. Study for a bounded time and learn as much as you can. Once you complete your goal for the day, Go and treat yourselves.

Government Pharmacist GENERAL STUDIES MENTAL ABILITY

by
Government Pharmacist GENERAL STUDIES

GENERAL STUDIES AND MENTAL ABILITY Government Pharmacist GENERAL STUDIES MENTAL ABILITY previous question paper with fully solved answer sheet practice questions for exams

Government Pharmacist GENERAL STUDIES

General Studies and Mental Ability
FINAL KEY
Q.1. The term ’16 + 1’ Countries refers toChina and Central and Eastern European Countries
Q.2. With which body Indian Army has signed MoU for construction of tunnel in China
and Pakistan borders?
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd.
Q. 3. How many states have started Operation Night Riders?
3
Q.4. 5 Indians were appointed as members of technical committees of Asian
Gymnastic Union. Who was not one among them?
Dipa Karmakar (Women’s Artistic Gymnastics)
Q. 5. With reference to Hyperloop. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
a. It is a proposed transport system where pods would travel at high speeds in a
near vacuum tube.
b. Maharashtra government has signed an agreement to build a Hyperloop
between Mumbai and Pune.
Select the answer using the code given belowBoth a and b
Q.6. Where was Cyber Exercise on ‘Scenario Building & Response’ held?
New Delhi
Q. 7. Which country has built first artificial Crater on an asteroid?
Japan
Q.8. Which one of the following is not correct?
The breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom is called fusion.
Q.9. Which phase change has the same magnitude of energy to the heat of
vaporization for water?
Condensation
Q. 10. Which planet stays the closest to Earth the longest?
Mercury
Q. 11. Who discovered D2O
Harold C. Urey
Q. 12. Which one is the sound of Mosquito?
Whines
Q.13. With reference to ‘Ozone Layer’, which of the following statements is/ are
correct?
a. This layer is found in the stratosphere that is above the Troposphere and
below the Mesosphere.
b. Ozone layer was discovered by French physician Charles Fabry in 1913.
c. Chlorofluorocarbons contribute to depletion of the ozone layer.
All a, b and c
Q.14 . Which is the largest bone in human body?
Femur
Q.15. With reference to ‘The Partition of India and Pakistan’, which of the following
statements is/ are correct?
a. Cyril Radcliffe designed the border between the two countries who had no
knowledge about anything except the geographical layout of the country.
b. After the partition, Pakistan got 1/4th of the Indian Army, 2 out of major 6
metropolitan cities and 35% of the Indian Railways lines.
c. Pakistan got Independence on the 14th and India on the 15th of August
because Lord Mountbatten wanted to personally attend both Pakistan’s and
India’s Independence ceremony.
d. The Father of the Nation, Gandhi was not present in Delhi during the partition.
Instead, he was in Calcutta, on August 15, 1947, where he prayed,
confronted rioters and worked with Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy to stop the
communal killing.
Codes:
a, c and d
Q. 16. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Parliament House’-
a. The shape of the building is circular, which is based on the Ashoka Chakra.
b. The parliament consists of two halls- Lok Sabha (House of People), Rajya
Sabha (the Council of States).
c. The Parliament House is located in New Delhi. The construction of buildings
took six years and the opening ceremony was performed on 18 January 1927.
Which of the above statement is incorrect?
Only b
Q. 17. Which of the following statement is not correct about ‘Election ink’?
It was first used in India 1960 in Mysore Karnataka.
Q. 18. “There shall be a President of India”, it is described in the article52
Q.19. India has a parliamentary system of Government. Which of the following are
the necessary features of Parliamentary government?
a. Majority Party Rule
b. Political Homogeneity
c. Collective Responsibility
d. Prime Minister as the Centre of Power
c, d and a
Q. 20. Who among the following proposed the suggestion for a Constituent
Assembly first in 1935?
M.N. Roy
Q. 21. In which planet’s moon Titan has 100m deep methane lakes?
Saturn
Q. 22. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Ganga River System?
a. The Ganga river system is the largest in India having a number of perennial
and non-perennial rivers originating in the Himalayas in the north and the
Peninsula in the south, respectively.
b. It rises from the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh in the Uttarkashi district of
Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi.
c. At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; then after, it is known as
the Ganga.
d. Ludhiana is located on the water divide between Indua and Ganga.
a, b and c
Q.23. Read the following statements:
a. The line that separates day and night is called the terminator, also referred to
as the “grey line” and the “twilight zone.”
b. The terminator is a circle with a radius that is approximately that of Earth.
c. The terminator passes through any point on Earth’s surface twice a day, at
sunrise and at sunset
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?
Both a and c
Q.24. Which among the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India in
terms of area?
Ladakh
Q.25. Which among the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency by number
of voters?
Malkajgiri
Q.26. Arrange the following Indian States in decreasing order of coastlinea. West Bengal
b. Kerala
c. Karnataka
d. Odisha
b, d, c, a
Q. 27. Which important latitude divides India in about two equal parts?
230 30’ North
Q.28. With reference to Andhra Pradesh, which of the following statements is/ are
correct?
a. Yeduguri Sandinti Jaganmohan Reddy is the second chief minister of Andhra
Pradesh, post its bifurcation.
b. Andhra Pradesh shares boundaries with Telangana in the north-west,
Chhattisgarh in the north, Odisha in the north-east, Tamil Nadu in the south
and Karnataka in the west.
c. The largest city in Andhra Pradesh is Visakhapatnam.
d. Andhra Pradesh has the third-largest coastline among the states of India.
a, b, and c
Q. 29. Consider the followinga. The Kanaka Durga Temple of Vijayawada is located on hill of Indrakeeladri in
Vijayawada on the banks of Krishna River.
b. The temple was constructed for Goddess Durga by Arjuna.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Both a and b
Q.30. How much is the difference between Indian Standard Time and Greenwich
Mean Time?
+ 5

hours
Q.31. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Sundari : West Bengal
Q.32. The earth is located betweenMars and Venus
Q.33. Ten Degree Channel separatesAndaman from Nicobar Islands
Q.34. With reference to ‘Aspirational Districts’ Program, which of the following
statements is/ are correct?
a. It aims to expeditiously improve the socio-economic status of 117 districts from
across 28 states.
b. The program focusses on 6 main themes.
c. NITI Aayog in partnership with the Government of Andhra Pradesh has
created a dashboard for monitoring the real-time progress of the districts.
Both a and c
Q.35. Which world heritage site comprises of the Alai Darwaza Gate?
Qutub Minar
Q.36. Name the Sanctuary famous for rare Gangetic Dolphins, Magar (Crocodile)
and Gharial (Aligator).
National Chambal Sanctuary
Q.37. Sustainable agriculture meansTo utilize land so that its quality remains intact
Q.38. The primary source of energy in Eco- body isSolar energy
Q.39. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
Ocean
Q.40. “Ecology is permanent economy” is the slogan of which movement?
Chipko Movement
Q.41. Find the correct alternative to fill in the blank space
Shoe: Leather:: ________
Highway : Asphalt
Q.42. Carbohydrates and fats are referred to as
Body fuels
Q.43. The fatty acids which cannot be synthesized by the body are referred to as_fatty
acids.
Essential
Q.44. Weight for height is a measure of:
Wasting
Q.45. Read the following statements:
A) Green leafy vegetables should be cooked in covered pan to retain its color.
B) Green leafy vegetables change color during cooking because of
acidic compound naturally present in them and escaping of gas in
cell interspaces.
Statement A is incorrect and Statement B is correct.
Q.46. Which of the following is not a social welfare service?
Providing health services to the people in general.
Q.47. The treatment of emotional/mental disorders through a relatively long-term
verbal interaction between a client and therapist is named as:
Psychotherapy
Q.48. The Panchayat Raj system was adopted first by Rajasthan State in India in year:
1959
Q.49. Write down the word which represents the correct meaning of “an extreme
fear of a particular thing or situation especially one that cannot be
reasonably explained:
Phobia
Q.50. Which one of the following is the smallest state of India?
Goa
Q.51. Which of the following Indian states share border with China?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Uttarakhand
D. Assam
A, B and C
Q.52. Which of the following states had its first Governor, a Woman?
Uttar Pradesh
Q.53.Through which of the following Indian States the Tropic of Cancer does not
pass?
Odisha
Q.54. Who among the following was the president of British Indian Association?
Radhakanta Deb
Q.55. Which of the following monuments has not been built by Shah Jahan?
Buland Darwaza, FatehpurSikri
Q.56. Which of the following is/are true about the book “Charaka Samhita”?
A. It is foundational textbook of Astrology.
B. Primarily written in Sanskrit
C. Authored by Ashwaghosha
D. It is fundamental textbook of Ayurveda
B and D
Q.57.The number of languages on the language panel of a currency note is:
Fifteen
Q.58. Who is the author of the book “Who were the Sudras”?
B. R. Ambedkar
Q.59. Who was the founder of “Abhinav Bharat Society”?
V. D. Savarkar
Q.60. Hunter Inquiry Committee Report is associated with
JallianwalaBagh Massacre
Q.61. Which of the following statement/s is/ are correct regarding Champaran
Movement?
A. An agriculturist RajkumarShukla requested Mahatma Gandhi to come to
Champaran to investigate the state of affairs of the peasants
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad requested Mahatma Gandhi to come to
Champaran to investigate the problems of farmers
C. The peasants of the Champaran were growing indigo under the
tinakathiasystem
D. The Champaran Satyagraha happened in 1916 under the leadership of
Mahatma Gandhi
A, and C
Q.62. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Diarchy Rule:
A. System of single government introduced by the Government of India Act,
1919.
B. It was introduced as a constitutional reform by Edwin Samuel Montagu
and Lord Chelmsford.
Only B
Q.63. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order:
A. Home Rule Movement
B. Chauri- Chaura Incident
C. Non-cooperation Movement
D. Quite India Movement
A, C, B, D
Q.64. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the cell wall:
A. Every living thing has cell walls.
B. In plants, the cell wall is composed mainly of strong fires of the polymer
called peptidoglycan.
C. The cell wall is located outside the plasma membrane.
Only C
Q.65. Which of the following statement is correct about Phloem?
A. It conducts food from leaves to rest of the plant.
B. They are dead at maturity.
C. Mostly Phloem cells are located outside the xylem
D. Facilitate gas exchange between the inner parts of leaves.
A and C
Q.66. Deficiency of Vitamin B-12 may cause:
Megaloblastic Anemia
Q.67. Which of the following is correct about Optical Fiber Communication:
A. It works on total internal reflection.
B. The fiber optics transmission involves transmission of signals in the form
of light.
C. Single mode fibers are used to transmit one signal per fiber.
D. Multimode fibers are used to transmit many signals per fiber.
All of above
Q.68. What is the SI Unit of Magnetic Intensity?
Ampere/meter
Q.69. Consider the correct statement about the Newton Law’s of Motion:
A. If there is no net force acting on an object then the object will
maintain a constant velocity.
B. Force to be equal to the change in momentum.
C. When we shake a tree vigorously its fruits and leaves fall down
because it works on the principle of inertia.
A, B, and C
Q.70. Which of the following is /are correct about the sound wave:
A. Sound waves are longitudinal electrical waves.
B. Frequency range 200 Hz falls under Infrasonic wave
C. Frequencies greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic waves.
D. Speed of Sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solid.
C only
Q.71. Observe the following statements about Doppler’s Effect?
A. If there is a relative motion between source of sound and observer, the
apparent frequency of sound heard by the observer is different from
the actual frequency of sound emitted by the source.
B. When the distance between the source and observer increases, then
apparent frequency increases.
Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.
Q.72.Which of the following is the chemical formula of Vinegar?
CH3COOH
Q.73. Who among the following has given the Atomic Theory?
Dalton
Q.74. Which of the following country has developed “Father of All Bombs”?
Russia
Q.75.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Agni –I Missile?
A. It is a high range ballistic missile developed by ISRO.
B. It has specialized navigation system which ensures it reaches the target
with accuracy.
C. 15 meter long Agni –I can carry payload up to 1000 Kg.
B and C Only
Q.76.In which year the word Secular was added to the preamble of the Indian
Constitution?
1976
Q.77.India borrowed the concept of Single Citizenship from which of the following
country?
Britain
Q.78. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution discusses about
“Protection of the Interest of Minorities”-
Article 29
Q.79. What is the meaning of Habeas Corpus?
You shall have the body.
Q.80.Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution confer power to the
President of India to grant pardon to any person convicted with death sentence?
Article- 72
Q.81. Indian Politician Lalu Prasad Yadav belongs to which of the Following Political
Party?
RJD
Q.82.Question should be as followsWhich of the following statements is correct about the Constituent Assembly?
Dr. K. M. Munsi was the Chairman of Order of Business Committee.
Q.83. Which of the following is/are correct about the Fundamental Rights?
A. Fundamental Rights are absolute and not subjected to reasonable
restriction.
B. All the fundamental Rights are suspended during the operation of a
National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Article 14 and
19.
Neither A nor B
Q.84. Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution was added on the
recommendation of:
Swaran Singh Committee
Q.85. In which of the following Schedule of the Indian Constitution “Anti-Defection
Law” has been discussed?
Tenth Schedule
Q.86. The statement “The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and
the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among
its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavor to bring about
prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks
and of drugs which are injurious to health” has been discussed in which part of the
Indian Constitution?
Part IV
Q.87. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the Fundamental
Duties?
A. Fundamental Duties are confined to Indian citizens only and do not
extend to foreigners.
B. Like fundamental rights, the fundamental duties are also justiciable.
Only A
Q.88. Choose the correct statement/s about the Indian and the British Parliamentary
System.
A. Head of the State in India is elected.
B. Head of the State in Britain is elected.
C. British system is based on the sovereignty of Parliament.
D. Indian Parliament is not supreme and enjoys limited power.
A, C and D
Q.89. Sarkaria Commission is related with:
Centre-State Relation
Q.90. Which of the following Amendment to the Constitution made Sikkim a fullfledged state of the Indian Union?
36th Amendment
Q.91. Kuchipudi, the village is located in which district of Andhra Pradesh
Krishna and Guntur
Q.92. Sriharikota is situated in which district of Andhra Pradesh?
Nellore
Q.93. What does foreign capital include?
A. Foreign direct investment
B. Trade credit
C. NRI deposits
D. External commercial borrowings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
DELETED
Q.94. Which of the following are implications of deflationary effect on an economy?
A. Unemployment rises and wages decline
B. Demand for goods increases
C. Drop in lending of bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A and C only
Q.95. Monopolistic competition is a:
Market structure where there exist a very large number of sellers selling
differentiated but substitutable products.
Q.96. What does the BIFR (board for industrial and financial reconstruction) deal
with?
Revival of sick industries
Q.97. Who among the following designed the National Flag of India?
Pringali Venkayya
Q.98. The OPEC (Organization of petroleum exporting countries) is an example of
which of the following types of market?
Oligopoly
Q.99. Promoting digital payments has been assigned to which of the following:
Ministry of electronics and information technology
Q.100. In which year the Environment Protection Act was enacted?
1986
Q.101. In which of the following river the KumbhMela of Nashik is celebrated?
Godavari
Q.102. Who among the following world leader is the recipient of prestigious Seoul
Peace Prize-2018 for contributing international cooperation and fostering global
economic growth?
Narendra Modi
Q.103. Which among the following books was written by Bhogaraju Pattabhi
Sitaramayya?
The History of Indian National Congress.
Q.104. Veer Pariwar Mobile App is associated with which of the following force
group?
CRPF
Q.105. Which of the following statement is correct about the Programme “MERA
Gaon-MeraGaurav”?
It is a Programme in which Agri-Scientists will go the village to provide
farmers with required information, knowledge and advisories.
Q.106. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the “Champion of
the Earth”?
A. It is the highest award of the United Nation Environment.
B. It is the highest award of the United Nation Human Settlements
Programme.
C. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi is also the one of the recipients of
the award of the Champion of the Earth.
D. Champion of the Earth was introduced by UN in 2000.
A and C
Q.107. In which of the following Assembly, World Health Organisation has adopted
India’s Digital Health Initiative as its first resolution on digital health?
71st World health Assembly.
Q.108. Which of the following country has created the first direct route to transport
gas from one of the world’s largest fields to Europe bypassing Russia?
Azerbaijan
Q.109. What was the theme for the World Radio Day 2019?
Dialogue, Tolerance and Peace
Q.110. On which of the following dates Andhra Pradesh Reorganization bill was
assented by the President of India.
1st March 2014
Q.111. Who among the following Indians is the recipient of the Carnot Prize for the
contribution to the energy policy?
Piyush Goyal
Q.112. Which of the following statement is/are correct about “Khelo India Youth
Games (KIYG)”?
A. The programme was launch in 2018.
B. The Khelo India Programme has been introduced to revive the sports
culture in metro cities.
C. The second events for the KIYG was held in Bangalore.
D. The First event for the KIYG was held in Pune.
Only A
Q.113. The online campaign “Web- Wonder Women” is related with:
The women, who have been driving positive agenda of social change via
social media.
Q.114. Who among the following was the President of World Bank before David
Malpass?
Jim Yong Kim
Q.115. Which of the following amendment to the constitution facilitated the
reservation for the economically weaker sections?
124th Constitution Amendment Bill
Q.116. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Electronic Voting
Machine (EVM)?
A. Gujarat is the first state in India to use EVM in the state assembly elections.
B. EVMs have been used for the first time at the pan India level in 2009
General Elections.
C. VVPATs, a paper slip is generated bearing name and symbol of the
candidate along with recording of vote for the first time has been used in
2019 Lok Sabha elections.
D. EVMs machines run on a 6-volt alkaline battery.
C and D
Q.117. Which of the following statement/s is are correct about the India-Central Asia
Dialogue?
A. The republic of Uzbekistan organized the first India-Central Asia Dialogue.
B. The Foreign Minister of Turkmenistan participated in the dialogue as the
special invitee.
C. The next India-Central Asia Dialogue 2020 will be hosted by India.
D. The dialogue was also participated by the External Affair Ministers of
Afghanistan, Kyrgyz Republic, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan and
Uzerbaijan.
A,C and D
Q.118. The campaign of “Sabki Yojana, SabkaVikas’ is related with:
Gram Panchayats
Q.119. Which of the following statement/s is /are correct about the Aisa – Europe
Meeting?
A. The 12th Asia – Europe Meeting was held in Brussels.
B. The First summit was held in Singapore.
Codes:
Only A
Q.120. The cost price of an article is X. It is marked up by 150%. It is sold at Rs. 600
after giving 40% discount. What is X (in Rs.)?
Rs. 400
Q.121. Which among the following is premier financial institution for agricultural
credit
NABARD
Q.122. Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First car
runs for 25km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns left and then
runs for another25 km and then takes the direction back to reach the main road. In
the meantime, due to Minor break down the other car has run only 35 km along the
main road. What would bethe distance between two cars at this point?
65 km
Q.123. When (X3
-2X2
-PX-Q) is divided by (X2
-2X-3), the reminder is (X – 6). The values of
P and Q are respectively
2,6
Q.124. A train 100 meters long takes 6 seconds to cross a man walking at 5 kmph in a
direction opposite to that of the train. Find the speed of the train.
55
Q.125. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 min. and 32 min. respectively. If both
the pipes are opened simultaneously, after how much time B should be closed so
that the tank is full in 18 minutes?
8
Q.126. A Truck factory manufacturing at a steady rate produces 20 trucks in 4 days.
How manyTrucks could 3 such factories produce in 6 days, if they were working at
the same rate?
90
Q.127. If 3(x-Y) =27 and 3(X+Y) = 243, then X is equal to:
4
Q.128. The radius of the cylinder is half its height and the area of inner part is 616 sq.
cms. Approximately how many liters of milk can it contain?
1.5
Q.129. When 233is divided by 10, the reminder will be?
2
Q.130. Unit’s place digit in 962×357×133 is:
2
Q.131. Match the following:
Dam State
i. Bhakra (A) Himachal Pradesh
ii. NagarjunaSagar (B) Haryana
iii. Hirakud (C) Andhra Pradesh
iv. Kaushalya (D) Odisha
Select the following codes given below:

A B C D
i iv ii iii
Q.132. The length of a line was measured during survey of an APSRTC site with a 20
metre chain. The length of the line was found to be 250 metres. What is the true
length of the line if the chain was 10 cm too long?
251.25 metres
Q.133.The length of a survey line measured with a 20 m chain was found to be 475
m. The true length of the line was known to be 476.20 m. What is the error in the
chain?
0.05 metres
Q.134. Chord scales are used to ________
Measure and set out angles
Q.135. Zero circle is a term pertaining to
Planimeter
Q.136. Any surface parallel to the mean spherical surface of the earth is a
Level Surface
Q.137.Which out of the following is NOT a levellng instrument?
Theodolite
Q.138. One of the following is a parameter in estimation of Ease of Doing Business :
Single Window System
Q.139. Land reform for recording the names of share croppers :
Operation Barga
Q. 140. Indexation benefits on Capital Gains are adjusted by means of a
Cost Inflation Index
Q.141. At the height of economic growth , if unemployment of labour increases , it is
called :
Jobless growth
Q.142. One of the following is Crypto currency :
Etherium
Q.143. Paritala in Krishna District is known for
Diamonds
Q.144. What is Bombay High Field known for ?
Oil deposits
Q.145. What divides Kathiawar Peninsula from South-Eastern part of Gujarat ?
Gulf of Khambhat
Direction (Q. Nos. 146 – 150): In each of the following questions, four words have
been given out of which three are alike in a certain way and one is different. Choose
out the odd one.
Question Number: 146
Hot
Question Number: 147
South – west
Question Number: 148
63
Question Number: 149
372164
Question Number: 150
57

AP Grama Sachivalayam category-1 Model Paper 2020 Telugu Q&A Exam

by
AP Grama Sachivalayam category-1 Model Paper 2020 Telugu Marks Exam

GENERAL STUDIES AND MENTAL ABILITY  AP Grama Sachivalayam category-1 Model Paper 2020 Telugu 150 Question and Answers

AP Grama Sachivalayam category-1 Model Paper 2020 Telugu Marks Exam

1. Which Indian city hosted the 106th Indian Congress?
Jalandhar
2. Read the following statements carefully and choose the right answer by
using the codes given below:
I. Congress Socialist Party was founded in 1934 under the leadership of
Acharya NarendraDev and Jai Prakash Narayan.
II. In February 1927, Motilal Nehru, on behalf of National Congress, attended
the Congress of Oppressed Nationalities at Brussels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only I
3. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R.Ambedkar as ‘The Heart
and Soul of the Constitution‟?
Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?
Preamble to the Constitution
5. In Eleventh Five year plan of India, the achievement of agricultural growth
rate was around:
3.6%
6. The Central Statistical Unit(CSU) which was converted into Central Statistical
Organization(CSO) in the year:
1951
7. As per population census-2001, the rural sex ratio in India was around:
946
8. Which of the following three R‟s are regarded as environment friendly?
Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
9. Which among the following countries announced to impose „Carbon Tax‟ for
2019 to cut its greenhouse gas emission-?
Singapore
10. Who was sworn in as the Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court on 1st
January 2019.
Justice Thottathil Bhaskaran Nair Radhakrishnan
11. Which document among the following is known as „Magna Carta of
Education‟ in India?
Wood‟s Dispatch of 1954
12. The Third edition of Raisina Dialogue in New Delhi was inaugurated by the
Prime Minister of :
Isreal
13. Which country has been ranked as the most peaceful country in the Global
Peace Index released by Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) in 2018.
Iceland
14. United Nations Human Rights Council(UNHRC) has 47 UN member states with
specific number of seats allotted for each five regions of the globe. How many
seats are allotted for Asia-Pacific States.
13
15. United Nation observed the first official Braille Day on
4th January
16. Where is the Headquarters of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
Brussels, Belgium
17. Earth Day is celebrated every year on
22nd April
18. Which Spacecraft is the first to land on the far side of the moon?
Chang’e 4
19. Which of the following movies has been selected as India‟s official entry to
the Oscar 2019 (91st Academy Awards) under Foreign Language category
Village Rockstars
20. What is the rank of India in Global Gender Gap Report2018 released by the
World Economic Forum (WEF) on December 2018.
108th
21. Who is the first women to win a gold medal n the women‟s 400 meter final
race at the IAAF world under-20 AthleticC hampionships held in Finland?
Hima Das
22. The Union Cabinet has approved an ordinance to set up the country‟s first
national sports university in one state recently, identify the state.
Manipur
23. Who won the men‟s single Wimbledon 2018 Championship title?
Novak Djokovic
24. Who won the 16th National Squash Women‟s Singles title?
Joshna Chinappa
25. Which university has been ranked as world‟s most innovative university by
Reuters news agency in 2018?
Stanford University
26. In which place the G20 Digital Economy Ministerial meeting was held?
Salta, Argentina
.
27. Name the country for which the Resolution 2428 was adopted by UNSC in
2018.
South Sudan
28. What is the rank of India on Happiness level in the World Happiness Report,
2018?
133
29. There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is
tallest. D is a little shorter than B and little taller than A. Who is the shortest?
E
30. P is fifteenth from the left end in a row of boys and Q is eighteenth from the
right end. If R is tenth from P towards the right end and fourth from Q towards
right end. How many boys are there in the row?
38
31. Who was the first woman speaker of Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly?
K. Pratibha Bharati
32. In which year Andhra University was established?
1926
33. Insert the missing number in the following series2/3, 4/7, ____, 11/21, 16/31
7/13
34. In a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN. How would
DISCLOSE be written in that code?
IDSCOLSE
35. There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E is
below A and B is below E. Which is at the bottom?
B
36. The booklet Asbab-e-Baghawat-e-Hind (The Causes of the Indian Revolt)? is
written by whom?
Syed Ahmed Khan
37. Who was the first woman to climb mount Everest in the world?
Junko Tabei
38. Name the institute in which the Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC)
is established.
Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Service (INCOIS)
Hyderabad
39. India participated in a joint military drill called „Vajra Prahar 2018‟ in Jaipur
on 1st December 2018. Name the country with whom this joint exercise was
performed.
United States
40. Name the institute that was awarded the “Outstanding Case Writer award
at the inaugural case collection Managers meet held in Hyderabad on 16th
November 2018.
ICFAI Business School
41. International Labour Organisation‟s conventions 138 and 182 are related to:
Child labour
42. Which article provides the„Right to Education‟ to all children of the age of six
to fourteen years?
Article 21 A
43. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
Right of the minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions
44. Andhra Pradesh topped the list of ease of living index in 2018 followed by
Odisha and Madhya Pradesh. This ranking was done under the scheme known
as:
AMRUT
45. The news papers contain one of the following toxic materials
Pb
46. Carbon monoxide breathing is harmful for human being because
It competes with oxygen in the blood
47. Undavalli Caves is located in
Vijayawada
48. From where was GSAT-1 was launched?
Sriharikota
49. An object is thrown with a certain force from South-east to north-west. The
wind exerts an equal force from south –west to north-East. What is the final
direction of the object?
Due North
50. How many times the hands of a clock will be in vertically opposite directions
from 10.00 a.m to 10.00 p.m?
12 times
51. The time by your watch is 10.31 o‟clock. In checking with two friends you find
that their watches give time as 10.25 and 10.34. Assuming that all the three
watches are equally good, what do you think is the probability of correct time?
10.30
52. Which part of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 deals with
„Management and Development of Water Resources?
Part IX
53. With reference to Global alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA);
which of the following statement is correct?
Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligation
54. Which section of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act 2014 deals with
representation of the Anglo-Indian community?
Section 18
55. Telugu literature was first influenced by which empire?
Vijayanagara Empire
56. Andhra state was created on linguistic basis from part of Madras Presidency
in which year?
1953
57. What is to the east of Andhra Pradesh?
Bay of Bengal
58. Who was the first Prime Minister from Andhra Pradesh?
P.V. Narasimha Rao
59. World toilet Day s celebrated on
19th November
60. Which of the following agency published the Red data book?
IUCN
61. Which of these countries is considered to have world‟s first sustainable Biofuel economy?
Brazil
62. Name the Soviet Union suborbital flight carrying two dogs Dezik and Tsygan.
Robotics spacecraft
63. The 10th BRICS summit Declaration was named as
Johannesburg Declaration
64: Who is the author of the famous book series „Game of Thrones‟?
George R.R Martin
65: The first Rampa Rebellion took place in which of the following years?
1879
66: Gottipati Brahmaiah, a freedom fighter from Andhra Pradesh was popularly
known as:
Leader of Farmers
67. The battle of „Padmanabham‟ between the Britishers and the kings of the
Vijayanagaram was fought on:
10 July 1794
68. In which year the control of the British government in India was transferred
to the British crown?
1858
69. Who among the following was the last Viceroy of British India?
Lord Mountbatten
70. Who among the following put forward the „Theory of Drain of Wealth,‟
which highlighted the exploitation of Indian resources for the benefit of Britain?
Dadabhai Naoroji
71. Which schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages?
Eighth
72. Which of the following was the capital of Andhra State until 1956?
Kurnool
73. How many States and Union Territories are present in India?
29 States and 7 Union Territories
74. Forests and lakes are best classified as examples of:
Natural Ecosystem
75. The Pasarlapudi blowout near Amalapuram in the East Godavari district of
Andhra Pradesh occurred on which of the following days:
8 January 1995
76. On which river was the Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project
completed?
Godavari
77. According to twelfth five year plan document, development of which of the
following is a general capability enhancer for all agents?
Infrastructure
78. During the eleventh Five year plan period (2007-08 to 2011-12), on an
average, private consumption expenditure as percentage of GDP was:
59 percent
79. Which of the following was an essential element of strategy, in Fourth Five
Year Plan of India, aimed at achieving balance on foreign account and goal of
self reliance?
A sustained increase of exports by about 7 percent a year during
the plan period
80. As per Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index-Baseline Report2018, for the construction of SDG India index, NITI Aayog left out which one of
the following SDG?
Sustainable consumption and production
81. Which of following is true in relation to the Economic Statistics Division (ESD)
of the Central Statistical Office (CSO)?
ESD compiles the Index of Industrial Production
82. Which of the following method of measuring GNP is called as Final Product
Method?
Expenditure method
83. Smart Cities Mission is a holistic city rejuvenation programme for:
100 Cities in India
84. Which of the following is true in relation to the value of ‘Index of Crop
Diversification’ in agriculture sector?
It ranges between 0 (zero) and 1 (one)
85. The expected share of India‟s services sector exports in global services
exports by the year 2022:
4.2%
86. In relation to India‟s Balance of Payments, the Current Account Deficit
(CAD) in the second Quarter of 2017-18 was around:
DELETED
87. According to World Bank‟s Ease of Doing Business Report-2018, India‟s rank
in ease of doing business in 2018 is:
DELETED
88. The „Monetary Policy Committee’ determines the policy interest rate
required to achieve:
The inflation target
89. Which of the following is a capital market instrument in India?
Equities
90. According to Comptroller and Auditor General of India report, which of the
following is true in relation to the composition of total revenue receipts of
Andhra Pradesh in 2015-16 Financial Year?
Own tax revenue of the state accounted for around 45% of total
revenue receipts of the state
91. In the total revenue receipts of Andhra Pradesh for the year 2016-17, The
share of grants- in-aid from government of India, was around:
23.60% approximately
92. What is the amount GOI has directly transferred to state implementing
agencies during the year 2016-17
1033.19 Cores
93. Who was awarded the first ever Philip Kotler Presidential Award by the World
Marketing Summit held in India in the year 2018?
Narendra Modi
94. First state to implement 10% quota for economically weak in an Unreserved
categoryGujarat
95. Which country is the World’s largest producer of solar energy?
China
96. Which among the following two new science communication platforms
launched by Union minister for science and technology are?
DD Science and India Science
97. Which research institution has launched a new platform called ‘Samwad
with students’ to engage students in space science activities?
ISRO
98. Legal protection to industrial designs is given in 2001 under the following
Agreement:
Locarno
99. The differences between the value of currency and the cost of producing is
called :
Seigniorage
100. “ N.T.R. Bharosa” scheme is a
Pension scheme
101.“Aadarana 2 “is a programme launched by A.P. Government for :
B.C Welfare
102. Who is the chairman for APSCHE ?
S.V. Raju
103. “ ChandraKanthi “ is a programme to :
Dristribute LED lamps
104. Name the area wise largest district of Andhra Pradesh
Anantpur
105. In the Indian context what is what is the implication of ratifying „Additional
Protocol‟ with the „International Atomic Energy Agency‟(IAEA)?
The civil nuclear reactor come under the safeguard of IAEA
106. How many times digit 0 appear between 1 and 10000?
2893
107. If in a certain language TRIVANDRUM is coded as 2 5 9 5 3 5 4 7 5 8, how
would MADRAS be coded?
834536
108. Who spelt out sustainable development?
Bruntland
109. Saffron is produced in
J&K
110. India‟s highest annual rainfall state is
Meghalaya
111. ———– state is known for growing the spices?
Kerala
112. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme was launched by ————-
Ministry of Women and Child Development
113. Headquarters of Confederation of Indian Industries is located
at?
New Delhi
114. Who wrote the controversial novel the satanic verses?
Salman Rushdie
115. What is the theme of 2018 & 2019 World Diabetes Day?
The family and diabetes
116. The Cannes film festival is held in ———-
France
117. Who was the first woman to go to space?
Valentina Tereshkova
118. The religious text of Jews is ——————
Torah
119. Which was the official mascot of FIFA 2018 World cup?
Zabivaka
120. What is the minimum age to become the President of India?
35 years
121. Who was the first person to address United Nations in Hindi?
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
122. Who authored Gitanjali?
Rabindranath Tagore
123. When did the Right to Information Act come into force in
India?
12th October 2005
124. The Nobel Prize was instituted by which country?
Sweden
125. The world yoga day is celebrated on ————–
21st June
126. When is National technology day celebrated in India?
11th May
127. The Nobel prize 2018 in medicine was given to —————–
Allison and Honjo
128. Who among the following has written Musalamma Maranamu?
CR Reddy
129. Who among the following presidents of India gave assent to
Andhra Pradesh reorganisation bill?
Pranab Mukherjee
130. Who among the following was the CM of in AndhraPradesh at
the time of Jai Andhra Movement (1972)?
PV Narasima Rao
131. Siddhartha Gautam was the founder of ———–
Buddhism
132. Sikh Scriptures are found in
Adigranth
133. ———– was the person who discovered new sea route to India
via coast of South Africa on 20th May 1498.
Vasco De Gama
134. ———— in 1875 founded Arya Samaj in Bombay.
Swami Dayanand Saraswati
135. M.K.Gandhi announced mass civil disobedience movement in
the year —–
1930
136. Sriharikota, the location of Satish Dhawan Space Research
Centre is located in the district
Nellore
137. Which cloud type produces rainstorms?
Cumulonimbus
138. From the choices below, the best estimate of the age of the Universe is —–
—– years old.
13.8 billion
139. Which chemical salt is used in cloud seeding?
Silver iodide
140. The region between ~ 30° to 35° north and 30° to 35° south latitudes is
characterized by weak winds. This region is called ————
The horse latitudes.
141. What was the theme of the World Environment Day,2018?
Beat plastic pollution
142. Where was the International Conference on Climate Change held in
December 2018?
Katowice(Polland)
143. Which lenses are used by people having short-sightedness?
Concave
144. Which liquid is used in an aneroid barometer?
None
145. Where did Mahatma Gandhi started his first Satyagraha in India?
Champaran
146. When was the Indian Constitution first amended?
1951
147. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
The President
148. Which state is known as the `Granary of India`?
Punjab
149. The Forest(Conservation)Act was enacted in the year
1980
150. The leading producer of coffee is
Brazil

100+ General Studies & Mental Ability for DI RRB Pharmacist

by
100+ General Studies & Mental Ability for DI RRB Pharmacist

Drug Inspector RRB Government Pharmacist General Studies & Mental Ability interpretation question and answers for the study preparation.

previous old question paper with answers solved
Directions: For question number 1 to 4
The following pie diagram shows the monthly expenditure of Rakesh and Sohan. Rakesh earns
Rs. 15,000 per month and Sohan Rs 18,000 per month. Study the diagram and answer the
questions given below:
Q: 01. How much more or less does Sohan spend on children’s education than Rakesh?
Rs. 360 Less
Q: 02. Who spends more on Food and how much more?
Sohan, Rs. 240 more
Q: 03. What is the ratio of the expenditure on children’s education by Rakesh and Sohan?
5: 4
Q: 4. What is the measure of the angle used to represent the expenditure on ‘House’ by Rakesh
in (approximately)?
680
27%
32% 8%
33%
SOHAN
House
Miscellaneous
Children Education
Food etc
12%
19%
31%
38%
RAKESH
Children Education
House
Miscellaneous
Food etc
Q.5. Arrange the following in order of decreasing magnetic moments:
Fe2+ Mn2+
Cu2+
V
3+
Mn2+> Fe2+ > V3+> Cu2+
Q. 6. Which of the following is/are correct about sigma bond?
1) Formed by axial overlapping
2) Weaker
3) Independent existence
4) Free rotation possible
1, 3 and 4
Q. 7. The temperature at which a conductor becomes a super conductor is called:
Transition Temperature
Q. 8. The principal amount which yields a Compound Interest of Rs. 208 in second year at 4% is:
Rs. 5000
Q. 9. A person sold a box of pen at a gain of 15%. Had he bought it for 25% less and sold it for
Rs. 60 less he would have made profit of 32%. The cost price of the box of pen was:
Rs. 375
Q.10. There are 40 students in a hostel. If the number of students increases by 5 and the
expenses of the mess increased by Rs. 45 per day while the average expenditure per head
decreases by Rs. 1 then find the total original expenditure of the mess:
Rs. 720
Q. 11. A and B can complete a work in 5 days. They start working but after 3 days B left the
work. if the work is completed after 3 more days B alone can do the work in:
15 days
Q.12. Production of tea requires
moderately hot and humid climate with frequent rains
Q.13. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90o
in the clockwise direction, then 180o
in the
anticlockwise direction and then another 90o
in the same direction. Which direction is he
facing now?
South East
Q.14. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three
tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities
B and C from A ?
Rs. 13, Rs. 17

100+ General Studies & Mental Ability for DI RRB Pharmacist
Q.15. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut each roll of equal
length into 10 pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in 24
minutes?
120 rolls
Q.16. Acid rains occur when atmosphere is heavily polluted with:
SO2 and NO2
Q.17. Eutrophication of lakes is caused by
Phosphates
Q.18. Which one of the following is not associated with earthquake?
DELETED
Q.19. Fresh water achieves its greatest density at :
4 degree C
Q.20. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1cm cubes. What is the percentage increase in the surface area
after such cutting?
300%
Q.21. The surface area of three coterminous faces a cuboid area 6,15,10 sq.cm respectively.
What is the volume of the cuboid?
30
Q.22. The sum of the ages of a son and his father is 56 years. After four years the age of father
will be three times that of his son. Their present age respectively are:
12 year and 44 years
Q.23. Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of
Sulphur dioxide
Q.24. Deathwhile sleeping in closed room with burning coal furnace is caused by
CO
Directions: Consider the following table and answer question 25.
Number of workers Working hours
20
15
25
16
04
45-50
40-44
35-39
30-34
0-29
Q.25. What percentage worked 40 or more hours?
43.75
Q: 26 Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists:
List – I List – II
Four spheres Greek words
a. Stone 1. Atmo
b. Air 2. Hydro
c. Water 3. Bio
d. Life 4. Litho
Codes:
a b c d
4 1 2 3
Q: 27. Which of the following has pH value 7?
Pure water
Q. 28. Which state government given its in- principle approval to bring ‘man- animal conflict’
under listed disasters in the State Disaster Response Fund?
Uttar Pradesh
Q: 29. State bird of Andhra Pradesh is:
Rose-ringed parakeet
Q: 30. Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States with regard to sq.
km of forest area (2017)?
DELETED
Q: 31. According to Indian Forest Status Report released in February, 2018, how much area of India
is covered by forests and trees?
24.39%
Q: 32. Which set of data has a mean of 15, a range of 22, a median of 14, and a mode of 14?
3,14,19,25,14
Q: 33. How many inches are there in 5 centimeters?
1.968503937
Q: 34. A graph of a cumulative frequency distribution is called:
Ogive
Q: 35. In the case of classification of data, the class having its upper limit is treated as the lower
limit of its next class is called:
Open ended class
Q: 36. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer codes given below the listsList- I List- II
Rupee Denomination Motif of Bank Note
a. 200 1. Hampi with Chariot
b. 50 2. Mangalyaan
c. 500 3. Sanchi Stupa
d. 2000 4. Red Fort
Codes:
a b c d
3 1 4 2
Q: 37. Which gas is known as marsh gas?
Methane
Q: 38. Who introduced ‘www’ to the world?
Sir Tim Berners-Lee
Q. 39. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer codes given below the listsList- I List- II
Gases in atmosphere Percentage
a. Nitrogen 1. 21
b. Oxygen 2. 78
c. Argon 3. 0.04
d. Carbon dioxide 4. 0.93
Codes:
a b c d
2 1 4 3
Q: 40. _________ is the fourth state of matter.
Plasma
Q: 41. Along with whom, Bhagat Singh threw a bomb in Central AssemblyBatukeshwar Dutt
Q: 42. The first railway in India was laid down during the period ofLord Dalhousie
Q: 43. Which river of India passes the Tropic of Cancer twice?
Mahi
Q: 44. ‘Jarawa’ and ‘Onge’ are tribes found inAndaman and Nicobar
Q: 45. In which state Milam Glacier is located?
Uttarakhand
Q: 46.What is the minimum age to contest in the Panchayat elections?
21 years
Q: 47. Which statement is not true about India’s National Flag?
a) The ratio of the length and width of the flag is 2: 1
b) It is designed using three colours – saffron (top most), white (middle) and India green
(lower most). The middle band contains navy blue Ashoka Chakra (Wheel of Law) in the
centre with 24 spokes to the wheel.
c) The present form of the national flag was adopted in the meeting of Constituent
Assembly on 22nd of July in 1947.
d) It is also called as ‘Tiranga’, meaning three colours and is based on Swaraj flag, designed
by PingaliVenkayya.
a
Q: 48. How many Sustainable Development Goals were set by the United Nations General
Assembly in 2015?
17 Goals
Q: 49. Which is the India’s First Solar- Powered Railway station?
Guwahati railway station
Q: 50. Dakshin Gangotri is _____________?
Indian Scientific Base Station in Antartica

Drug Inspector General Awareness & Mental Ability 

Q: 51. India has been divided into how many Seismic Risk Zones?
4
Q: 52. Landslides often occur inHilly region
Q.53.Which type of soil water is most useful for plant?
Capillary water
Q.54.Strip of trees and shrubs planted for protection of fields from Winds in coastal areas are
called
Shelter Belts
Q.55. A camel can tolerate a loss of water at about ________ of its body weight when exposed
to severe desert heat.
30 percent
Q.56. Ringworm is a __________that attacks the skin, hair and nails of both animals and
humans.
Fungus
Q: 57. Raju ranks 7th from the top and 28th from the bottom. How many students are there in
the class?
34
Q: 58. Ravi moves 3 Km towards south, then turns to his left and moves 5 Km. Again he turns to
his right and goes only 3 Km. Which choice given below indicates the direction in which Ravi is
from his starting point?
DELETED
Q: 59. The numbers 4, 6, and 8 have the frequencies (x + 2), x and (x – 1), and if their arithmetic
mean is 8, the value of x is:
DELETED
Q: 60. The median of data 30, 25, 27, 25.8, 29, 35, 38, 28 is :
28.5
Q.61. If 40% of X is equal to Y, then Y% of 40 is equal to X% of
16
Q.62.
If x = 2+√3, then (x2 +
1

2
)is equal to:
14
Q.63. If 2x+3y = 8 and 4x-y = 2, then
X=1, Y = 2
Q.64. Let A and B are two sets containing 14 and 22 elements respectively. If A and B have 7
Common Elements, then the number of elements in AUB is
29
Q.65.
If =
2
3
, then value of cos + Sin ∶
√ −

Q.66. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 50 metre from its foot is 300
. The height of
the
tower is:
√

Q.67. The height of a tower is 100√3. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 100 metre
from its feet is:
600
Q.68. For a triangle ABC, D and E are two points on AB and AC such that AD=1
3
AB and AE=1
3
AC.
If BC = 15 c.m., then DE is:
5 c.m.
Q.69. If sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5, then this triangle is:
Right angled triangle
Q.70. In any triangle, sum of two sides is always
greater than third side
Q.76. Coppice shoot is defined as:
A shoot arising from an adventitious bud at the base of a woody plant that has been cut
near the ground
Q.77. Which of the following has excellent pollarding ability:
Hardwickia binata
Q.78. Hydrometeorology is the science which deals with
water in the atmosphere
Q.79. Ardeotis nigriceps is the zoological name of :
Great Indian Bustard
Q.80. Lysimeter is an instrument used to measure
evapotranspiration
Q.71. If the area of a rhombus is 168 m2 and the length of one diagonal is 48 m, the length of other
diagonal is:
7 m
Q.72. A sphere of 5 cm radius is melted and small spheres of radii 1 cm are made from it. The
number of spheres that can be made from it
125
Q.73. If two sides of an isosceles triangle are 7 cm and 13 cm, then which of followings may be
perimeter of the triangle
27

Government Pharmacist Old Solved Paper

Q.74. The ratio of the area of a square and area of a square made on diagonal of the square will be:
1:2
Q.75. A student has got the following grades on the test:
87, 95, 76 and 38.
He wants an average 85 for this exam. The minimum grade he must get on the last test in
order to achieve that average is:
DELETED
Q.81. “Branch Bending in Guava” plants favours :
Better fruiting
Q.82. Rhinos in India have been translocated from Kaziranga to :
Manas National Park
Q.83. In selection system of Silviculture:
The mature crop is removed as single trees or in small groups over the whole of felling
series.
Q.84. A soil must have following for supporting plant growth:
Mineral matter, organic matter, soil water and soil air
Q.85. International day for Biological Diversity is observed on :
May 22
Q.86. DNA fingerprinting is used for which of the following:
All of the given options
Q.87. A seed may not germinate, even if all favourable conditions are provided to germinate, it
may be due to:
Dormancy
Q.88. Development of fisheries is known as
Blue revolution
Q.89. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON) is in :
Coimbatore
Q.90. Which one is the most prominent silvicultural tool for manipulation of tree growth in
agroforestry system:
Thinning and Prunning
Q.91. Canopy Density of forests is defined as:
The relative completeness of canopy usually expressed as a decimal coefficient, taking closed
canopy as unity.
Q.92. Regeneration felling is:
A felling of trees to invite or assist regeneration under a shelterwood system.
Q.93. A Biome is:
A large naturally occurring community of flora & fauna, occupying a major region.
Q.94. Continental drift
The hypothesis, proposed by Alfred Wegener, that today’s continents broke off from a single
supercontinent
Q.95. A planting graft technique in which scion is inserted in a narrow slit, made in the root
stock of the same species is
Notch grafting
Q.96. Volume table is
A table showing the estimated average tree or stand volume based on given tree
measurements, usually diameter and height
Q.97. In Ecological succession, Sere means:
The sequence of communities that replace one another in a given area.
Q.98. The progressive dying, usually backwards from the tip, of any portion of a plant; The
death of the shoot, the root remaining alive is termed as
Die back.
Q.99. Slender Loris is found in :
Southern India
Q.100. The point, where CAI (Current Annual Increment) and MAI (Mean Annual Increment)
meet is the
Rotation of maximum volume production

RRB Railway Recruitment Board Pharmacist General Paper

Q.101. Littoral Forest means
A forest growing at or near the sea-shore.
Q.102. An organism which has its body heat regulated by the temperature of its surroundings is
termed as:
Poikilotherm
Q.103. Artificial seed is
Encapsulated somatic embryos.
Q.104. A knee-shaped or spike-like projection of the roots of swamp trees enabling the submerged roots to obtain oxygen.
Pneumatophore
Q.105. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between
Fungi and roots of higher plants
Q.106. The time that elapses between successive main fellings on the same area is known in
silvicultural terms:
Felling cycle
Q.107. Rotation is
The planned number of years between the formation or regeneration of crop and its
final felling.
Q.108. The salinity in water
reduces the evaporation
Q.109. Magma Chamber is
The subterranean cavity containing the gas-rich liquid magma which feeds a volcano.
Q.110. Most suitable tree species used in afforestation of coastal areas:
Casuarina equisetifolia
Q.111. Icebox is a fruit type of
Watermelon
Q.112. A method of improving soil texture by the use of lime or other soil conditioners, thereby
increasing the air content, especially in heavy clay soils.
Floculation
Q.113. Amphistomatic leaves means
Leaves having stomata on both surfaces.
Q.114. Vegetables are canned in :
Brine
Q.115. What are the state animal, state tree and state flower of Andhra Pradesh
Black buck, Neem and Jasmine
Q.116. What is the ideal direction for a greenhouse to orient, in India?
North-South
Q.117. The most important breeding areas for Olive Ridley turtle along the Bay of Bengal in
Indian Ocean is the coast of
Orrissa
Q.118. A forest which has been reproduced through sprouting from stumps of felled trees is
called
Coppice forest
Q.119. All lands with tree cover of canopy density between 10% and 40% is called _____
Open forest
Q.120. _________ indicates the productive capacity of a specific area of forest land for a
particular tree species.
Site quality
Q.121. A process which removes injured, disease or insect-infested trees is called ______..
Sanitation cutting
Q.122. ICFRE was established during the year_____ and is headquartered at______
1986, Dehradun
Q.123. A snag is a _________________.
A standing dead tree
Q.124. Soil formed from parent material in situ
Sedentary soil
Q.125. The rotation which yields the highest net return on the invested capital is called
Financial rotation
Q. 126.One of the following instruments used for tree height measurement is based on the
principle of similar triangles – Identify the same
Christen’s hypsometer
Q.127. India became a party to CITES in the year___________, which is a body for regulating—-
1976 International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna & Flora.
Q.128. An Engineer’s chain measures
100 ft long
Q.129. The table showing the distribution of stems by diameter classes for each of the series of
crop diameters is called
Stand table
Q.130. The Asiatic lion is included in the following schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act of
1972
I
Q.131. The most important physical property of wood is its
Moisture content
Q.132. The ratio of diameter to girth of trees will be less than
0.3182
Q.133.The second Biosphere Reserve following the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established at
Nanda Devi
Q.134. A pair of appendages that present at the point of attachment of a leaf to the stem is
Stipules
Q.135. Photosynthesis is :
Anabolic process
Q.136. Which of the following is the International agreement which aims to ensure the safe
handling, transport and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern
biotechnology?
Cartagena Protocol
Q.137. The floating national park is situated in the state of
Manipur
Q.138. Seeds which cannot be dried to moisture contents below 30% without injury and are
unable to tolerate freezing are called
Recalcitrant seeds
Q.139. Which one of the following is the second largest brackish-water lagoon in India?
Pulicat lake
Q.140. Which one of the following four tiger reserves is the largest in India?
Nagarjuna Sagar – Srisailam tiger reserve
Q.141. Which one of the following is a Ramsar site?
Kolleru lake
Q.142. What is the selective removal of certain parts of a plant, such as branches, buds, or roots
is called?
Pruning
Q.143. GIS deals with which kind of data
Spatial data
Q.144. Which one of the following is the algebraic difference between discounted benefits and
discounted costs as they occur over time?
Net present value
Q.145. Foot and mouth disease in animals is caused by
Virus
Q. 146. Sampling method in which the sampling units are selected according to a predetermined patters is
Systematic sampling
Q. 147. Type of survey in which the curvature of the earth is not taken into account is called
Plane survey
Q.148. The vertical distance between any two consecutive contours is known as
Contour interval
Q.149. This Act was to consolidate and amend the law relating to the protection and
management of forests in State of Andhra Pradesh.
Andhra Pradesh Forest Act, 1967
Q.150. Maintenance of environmental stability, maintenance of ecological balance including
atmosphere equilibrium are the principle objectives of____________.
National Forest Policy, 1988

Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Questions General Studies Part 1

by
Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Questions General Studies

GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY

1. In a Dengue patient, the following would fall down drastically?
Count of Platelets
2. The following is generally used in bone healing in humans?
CissusQuadrangularis
3. Radioactivity was discovered by?
Henri Becquerel
4. The most abundant element in the Universe is?
Hydrogen
5. In a healthy adult, what is the approximate percentage of white blood cells in total blood
volume?
One percent
6. During winter in cold countries, the following is mixed to melt the ice on the roads?
Salt
7. Which of the following planets moves around the Sun with highest speed?
Mercury
8. Apart from Sun light and Carbon Dioxide, the source for production of Oxygen through
photosynthesis in plants is?
Water
9. In Chlorophyll, the central metal ion is?
Magnesium
10. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
Hydrogen
11. Which of the following is an inorganic lubricant?
Graphite
12. When an iron nail gets rusted, its weight?
Increases
13. In its natural state, the odour of LPG is?
LPG is odourless gas
14. Out of the following, which compoundhas highest solubility in Water?
Glucose
15. Gamma Rays are?
Rays without any charge
16. The most common method Uranium enrichment is?
Centrifugation
17. In vulcanization of natural rubber, the following is used?
Sulphur
18. If a person goes down into a deep mine, his weight?
Decreases slightly
19. Oyster shells are composed primarily of?
Calcium Carbonate
20. A hydrometer is used to measure?
Relative density of liquids
21. The intensity of earthquakes is measured using?
Mercalli Scale
22. Recently India held a 2+2 dialogue with?
USA
23. The theme of National Statistics Day celebrated on 29th June, 2018 was?
Quality Assurance in Official Statistics
24. What of the following is not one of the objectives of Solar Charkha mission launched by
President of India in June, 2018?
To provide solar charkhas to 10 lakh handloom weavers
25. Manufacture and import of which of the following hormones is banned by Government of India
from 1st July, 2018?
Oxytocin
26. Who amongst the following is one of the winners of World Food Prize, 2018?
Lawrance Haddad
27. Who is the present Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
Harivansh Narayan Singh
28. Which country gifted two giant tortoises to India, which are kept at Nehru Zoological Park,
Hyderabad in June, 2018?
Seychelles
29. What is the name of the program launched recently by Indian Railways on ethics in public
governance?
Mission Satyanishta
30. By which name, the longest lunar eclipse of the Century (occurred in July, 2018) is called?
Blood moon

Drug Inspector Exam General Knowledge Previous Questions

31. Who amongst the following got Ramon Magsaysay Award for 2018?
SonamWangchuk
32. What is name of the flagship programme launched by Government of India in 2018 aiming at
holistic nutrition for children, adolescents, pregnant women and lactating mothers?
PoshanAbhiyan
33. To which country India donated 200 cows during Prime Minister’s visit in July, 2018?
Rwanda
34. What is the name of the navy sailor from India, who participated in Golden Globe Race and was
rescued by a French fishing vessel when his boat was damaged in deep waters recently?
AbhilashTomy
35. The draft of National Register of Citizens was recently published with reference to the State of?
Assam
36. Which High Court of India recently declared entire animal kingdom as legal entities with rights,
duties and liabilities of a living person?
Uttarakhand High Court
37. As per the Public Affairs Index, 2018, which is the best governed State in India?
Kerala
38. How many medals are won by India at Asian Games, 2018?
69
39. Who out of the following persons won a Gold medal at Asian Games, 2018 in Wrestling?
VineshPhogat
40. Which of the following athletes is nicknamed as “Dhing Express”?
Hima Das
41. Who won the Gold medal in Women’s Singles Category of Badminton at Asian Games, 2018?
Tai Tzu-Ying
42. Which of the following Indus Valley sites is in India?
Lothal
43. Ancient people of South India buried the dead along with weapons, tools, pottery etc in graves
and placed big stones around the graves. These structures are known as?
Megaliths
44. Which metal did the ancient Indians use first?
Copper
45. The administrative setup of early Aryans was in the nature of?
Tribal polity
46. The interaction of Indian craftsman with Greeks and Romans resulted in the following art form?
Gandhara Art
47. Which of the following Satavahana Kings had immense love for overseas trade and navigation so
much so that the coins issued by him had picture of a ship?
YagnasriSatakarni
48. The Grand Trunk Road from Indus to Bengal was restored by one of the following rulers?
Sher Shah Suri
49. The Mansabdari system was introduced by?
a. Sher Shah
b. Akbar
c. Jehangir
d. Aurangazeb
50. In Mughal period, the letter of credit issued by Shroffs (money keepers) to people who
deposited cash for collecting it later or collecting the cash at a different place after journey was
called?
a. Farman
Hundi
51. Out of the following, who plundered Delhi and carried away the Koh-i-Noor diamond?
Nadir Shah
52. Out of the following, who introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal?
MurshidQuli Khan
53. Which was the seat of power of Peshwas?
Poona
54. Who were executed by the British along with Bhagat Singh on 23rd March, 1931?
Sukhdev and Rajguru
55. The Poorna Swaraj declaration was promulgated by Indian National Congress in 1929 at?
Lahore Session
56. At the time of Independence, which of the following Nawabs announced accession to Pakistan
though most of the population desired to stay with India?
Nawab of Junagadh
57. Partition of Bengal was done by the British in the year?
1905
58. Out of the below, a prominent leader of militant nationalist thought was?
Bal GangadharTilak
59. The Swadeshi movement was also known in Andhra region as?
VandeMataram Movement
60. Out of the following who wrote the “History of Indian National Congress”
BhogarajuPattabhiSitaramayya

Drug Inspector Exam Bihar AP Maharastra Kerala Important Solved Paper

61. Why did Congress Ministries in provinces resign in 1939?
Protesting against decision of Viceroy to make India as party to war with Germany
62. Approximately how many people died in Great Bengal Famine of 1943 (choose the nearest
figure)?
About 20 lakh
63. The visit of Mahatma Gandhi to Naokhali between November 1946 to March 1947 after the riots
resulted in?
Gandhiji failed to stop the enmity and violence
64. Out of the following, who first referred the matter of “Kashmir” to the United Nations Security
Council in 1948?
India
65. Out of the persons below, Who founded the Hindusthan Socialist Republican Association?
Bhagat Singh
66. Out of the below, India is part of the following land?
Gondwana Land
67. The valleys in Siwalik ranges are called as?
Duns
68. What is a “doab”?
An area between two rivers
69. “Ooty” is situated in?
Nilgiris
70. Which of the following places in Andaman & Nicobar Islands is of volcanic origin?
Barren Island
71. Which of the following rivers is located in Brahmaputra basin?
Teesta
72. Which of the following is the standard meridian of India?
82°30′ E
73. Which of the following places in India receives the highest average annual rainfall?
Mausimram
74. In Kerala, the pre-monsoon showers are popularly known as?
Mango showers
75. Hangul deer is endemic habitant of?
Kashmir
76. Red Sanders are endemic species of the following hill range?
Seshachalam range
77. What is the position of Andhra Pradesh State in Lime Stone production (quantity) in India?
Third Position
78. Sillimanite mining is done in the following district of Andhra Pradesh?
Srikakulam
79. As per Census 2011, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh has lowest number of
rural population as percentage of total population of the District?
Visakhapatnam
80. As per Census, 2011, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh had the highest
percentage of child population (as percentage of total population of the district)?
Kurnool
81. The highest peak in Eastern Ghats is?
Aroya Konda
82. As mentioned in the AP Reorganization Act, 2014, which port was to be developed by the
Government?
Duggarajapatnam
83. The grasslands of North America are known as?
Prairies
84. The varying lengths of day and light at different times of year at any place on earth is due to the
fact that?
The axis of the earth is inclinedto the elliptic of revolution around Sun
85. Majority of the deserts of the World lie between the following latitudes?
0 to 15 degree north and south latitudes
86. The Masai tribesman are residents of?
Savannahs
87. The temperature of the “Photosphere” of Sun is about?
6000 degrees centigrade
88. Which is the most earthquake prone nation in the World?
Japan
89. As per latest data, which Country of the World produces the highest quantity of Gold?
China
90. As per State of Forest report, 2015, which of the following States has highest forest cover as
percentage of its area?
Mizoram

Drug inspector preparation notes

91. Which of the following stretches of Andhra Pradesh is most vulnerable to Cyclones?
Ongole to Machilipatnam
92. Which Cyclone caused maximum loss of human life in Andhra Pradesh?
1977 Cyclone
93. The speed of a Tsunami wave approaching the shore would be?
The Tsunami wave slows down in speed
94. In the post disaster scenario, which of the following operations play major role?
Search and Rescue
95. In earth quake resistant design, the door and window openings on walls should be?
Small and centrally located
96. Which of the following Statements is most appropriate?
I. Earthquakes do not kill people
II. It is badly designed buildings that kill people
Both Statements are true and Statement II is the reason behind Statement I
97. For the purpose of reducing wind force on a roof, the following type of roof is preferable?
Pyramidal type
98. The responsibility to cope up with natural disasters essentially lies with?
State Government
99. The nodal ministry to coordinate disaster management operations in case of biological disasters
is?
Ministry of Home Affairs
100. Who heads the National Crisis Management Committee constituted by Central Government for
disaster management?
Cabinet Secretary
101. Which Article of the Constitution prescribes six freedoms?
Article 19
102. The Union of India is?
Indissoluble union of States
103. The Inter State Council is Constituted under which Article of the Constitution?
Article 263
104. Out of the following, what is true about the fundamental rights?
They are granted by the Constitution
105. To become a Member of Parliament of India, a person has to be?
No educational qualification is necessary

Drug Inspector Exam previous solved General studies Questions paper
106. The word “Secularism” was added to the preamble of the Constitution through?
42nd Amendment
107. The Salaries and allowances of Judges of Supreme Court of India are met from?
Consolidated fund of India
108. The right to education is a?
Fundamental right
109. In which year, Emergency was promulgated by President due to “internal disturbances”?
1975
110. What is the minimum age for a person to be elected as President of India?
35 years
111. How many readings would a bill undergo in a house of Parliament before it is passed?
Three readings
112. How many members are nominated by the President to Rajya Sabha from the fields of Arts,
Literature, Science, Social Service etc?
12
113. In how many days after receipt, the Legislative Council has to send back a “money bill” to
Legislative Assembly?
14 days
114. Which of the following is an “essential function” of Gram Panchayat?
Maintaining burial grounds
115. Out of the following, which is the major source of revenue for Panchayats?
Property Tax
116. Out of the following, which is not a feature of the 1991 New Economic Policy?
Nationalization
117. As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, the objective is to stabilize the population by the
year?
2045
118. FEMA was passed in the parliament in the year 1999 replacing FERA. One of the objectives of
FEMA as stated in the preamble of the Act is?
Facilitating external trade and payments
119. The Five Year Plan that proposed land reforms through cooperative land management for the
first time is?
Second Five Year Plan
120. The growth of the Indian economy in the post 1991 period is mainly attributable to?
Service led growth
121. The most important item in India’s imports in term of expenditure for most of the post-reform
period is?
Petroleum, oil and lubricants
122. The largest recipient of private remittances in the world in 2015 is?
India
123. The current exchange policy of India is?
Market determined exchange rate
124. The state which occupies the 1st position in bank depositsas on March 2017 is?
Maharashtra
125. The establishment of which institution marks the beginning of the era of development
financing in India?
IFCI
126. The Five Year Plan with the motto “Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth” is?
Twelfth Five Year Plan
127. The Chairman of Goods and Service Tax Council is
Union Finance Minister
128. An example of a hidden subsidy is seen in
Higher education in Public Universities
129. During the first four decades of planning in India, principal component of revenue of the central
government was from
Indirect taxes
130. Structural adjustment programs deal with
Reducing fiscal imbalances and adjust economy to long term growth

Drug inspector previous question papers

131. Book is to Library as Manuscript is to?
Archives
132. Monkey is to Nut as Sheep is to?
Grass
133. Find the odd one out of the following?
Wary
134. Ram runs faster than Shyam but is not fast as Janaki whilst Jane always beats Ram. Who is the
fastest runner amongst the above?
The above information is not sufficient to find out the correct answer
135. Jagan, Kishan and Madan have two favourite foods each. One of them does not like Rasgulla but
likes Lemon Rice. Kishan likes Parathas but Jagan does not like them. Madan likes Rasgulla.
Kishanand Jagan like Salad. Who likes Lemon rice if it is one of the favourite foods, the other
being Rasgulla, Salad and Parathas?
Jagan
136. Find the next number in the series 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8 …..?
13
137. Find the next number in the series 2, 5, 11, 23, 47?
95
138. If coffee is 4, 16, 7, 7, 6, 6; then tea is?
21,6,2
139. Find the next figure in sequence?
140. Find the missing figure in the sequence of diagrams?
141. If AWAKE is coded as ZVZJD, what is the code for FRIEND?
EQHDMC
142. If DIAMOND is coded as WRZNLMW then GARNET is coded as?
TZIMVG
143. If PROTECT IS CODED as QSPUFDU, then DESTROY is coded as?
EFTUSPZ
144. A clock shows 8 o’clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate
when the clock shows 2 o’clock in the afternoon?
180
145. Rajesh went 15 km to the North from his house. Then he turned west and covered 10 km. Then
he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to the east, he covered 10 km. In which
direction is he from his house?
North
The following table provides education details of 16 year old children for three years. Read the table
carefully and answer the questions below:
Type of education Year and percentage of Children
2015 2016 2017
Full time Intermediate 69.4 69.8 71.2
Out of which
Study in Aided Colleges 28.0 28.2 28.9
Study in Govt Colleges 6.4 6.3 6.2
Study in Private Colleges 35.0 35.3 36.1
Polytechnic Colleges 17.4 16.8 15.5
Not studying in any college 13.2 13.4 13.3
Number of 16 year old (in thousands) 600.4 605.1 609.2
146. In 2016 how many 16 year old children were studying in Polytechnic Colleges (rounded off to
nearest integer)?
a. 101657
147. How many 16 years old more were studying in Private colleges in the year 2017 compared to
year 2016 (rounded off to nearest integer)?
None of the given options is correct
148. In 2015, what is the ratio of students in aided colleges: students in Govt colleges: students in
Private Colleges (rounded off to two decimals)?
4.38 : 1 : 5.47
149. What is the aggregate number of children who were not studying in any college for the three
years together (rounded off to nearest integer)?
241360
150. What is the aggregate number of children who were studying Intermediate in Govt college for
the three years together (rounded off to nearest integer)?
114317