DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Question & Answers – DI Exam Practice Paper

DRUG INSPECTOR PRACTICE QUESTION & ANSWERS – DI EXAM PRACTICE PAPER

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Question & Answers – DI Exam Practice Paper is here for you to check out how well is your preparation going on. This is the smart way to learn.

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Questions

1. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease

17. The Latin term for ointment is
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem

18. The Latin term for “When required” is
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim

19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline

20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is

1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation

21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos

22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium

23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension

24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse

25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin

26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia

27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil

28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ?
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen

29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent

30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis

42. The word posology is derived from Greek word “posos” which means
1. “How much” 2. Quantity
3. Amount 4. How long
You are looking for the Drug Inspector Exam Question Paper, i am giving here:

Of the following, who is elected 5.
unopposed in the recent election to
Rajya Sabha
(1) Mayawati
(2) Vilasa Rao Deshmukh
– (3) Rajiv Shukla
( 4) All the above

1. Senna is
1. Irritant laxative 2. Osmotic laxative
3. Bulk laxative 4. Emollient laxative

2. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare

6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ?
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Paper 2018

8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate

9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called

1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte

10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella

11. P wave of ECG is the result of

1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in

1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock

13. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea

14. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ?
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property

15. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ?
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine

16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease

17. The Latin term for ointment is
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem

18. The Latin term for “When required” is
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim

19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline

20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is

1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation

21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos

22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium

23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension

24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse

25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin

26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia

27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil

28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ?
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen

29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent

30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis

31. In the extemporaneous preparation of eye drops the final clarification done by passing
through

1. Sintered glass filters
2. Gooch crucible
3. Whatman filter paper
4. Micro-porous plastic membrane

32. One of the advantages of IR heat sterilization of syringes is
1. Determination of internal temperature to assess the efficiency of sterilization is simple
2. More efficient than autoclaving
3. Unaffected by thermal resistance by static surface air films
4. Fast sterilization

33. International Pharmacopoeia is published by
1. WHO
2. International Pharmaceutical Federation
3. United Nations
4. US food and drug administration

34. In the case of sterilization by dry heat the microbes are killed by
1. Oxidation 2. Dehydration
3. Decomposition 4. Precipitation

35. Communicable disease caused by Rickettsiae is
1. Scrub typhus 2. Chancroid
3. Mumps 4. Influenza

36. One of the first aid in poisoning is by administering
1. Universal antidote
2. Table spoonful of mustered
3. Egg white
4. All the above

37. In hemolytic jaundice the following are true EXCEPT
1. Unconjugated bilirubin level increases
2. Anemia is common
3. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases
4. Liver function test normal

38. The mechanism of action of penicillin is
1. By inhibition of protein synthesis
2. By interference with ribosome function
3. By antimetabolite action
4. By interference with cell wall synthesis

39. Cotrimoxazole is more effective than individual administration of sulphame-thoxazole or
trimethoprim since
1. Both set sequentially in nucleotide synthesis
2. Sulphamethoxazole is antimetabolite and trimethoprin interfere with cell wall synthesis
3. Both binds to enzyme required for DNA replication
4. Sulphamethoxazole interfere with folic acid synthesis and trimethoprin interfere with cell
wall synthesis

40. Which of the following is fluoroquinolone derivative ?
1. Nitrofurantoin 2. Lomifloxacin
3. Prontocil 4. Penicillin

Who is the winner of the prestigious
ABEL PRIZE of the Norwegian
Academy of Sciences and Letters for
2012?
(1) Endre Szemeredi
(2) Paul Erdos
(3) M. Gelfand
( 4) Niel Henrik

3 percent of votes polled?
(1) RLD
(2) BSP
(3) Congress
(4) BJP

GS/500
20th New Delhi World Book Fair was in
augurated by
(1) Kapil Sibal
(2) Manmohan Singh
(3) Karan Singh
(4) Pratibha Patil

Some questions are given below :
1. All of the following ate psychotropic substances, except:
1. Amobarbital 2. Meprobamate
3. Barbital 4. All of the above

2. As per schedule P of Drugs and Cosmetics
Act, the Diphtheria toxoid has expiry period
of :
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 2 years 4. 5 years

3. Chloramphenicol comes under schedule :
1. G 2. H
3. W 4. P

4. Example of Narcotic drug is :
1. Coca 2. Opium
3. Charas 4. Doxapram

5. Ergot and its preparation belongs to schedule :
1. P 2. Q
3. C1 4. L

6. Schedule X drug is :
1. Amphetamine 2. Cyclobarbital
3. Glutethimide 4. All of the above

7. Drug Inspector is appointed under section :
1. 19 2. 42
3. 21 4. 30

8. Schedule M and Y were introduced in Drugs
and Cosmetics Act in :
1. 1976 2. 1982
3. 1988 4. 1980

9. Example of Schedule G drug is :
1. Tetracycline 2. Ampicillin
3. Ibuprofen 4. Tolbutamide

10. Example of Schedule X drug is :
1. Diazepam 2. Emetine
3. Quinidine 4. Ciprofloxacin

11. Opium has been under legislative control
since :
1. 1820 2. 1857
3. 1925 4. 1949

12. Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in schedule :
1. S 2 R
3. Q 4. T

13. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act has been divided
into …… parts
1. 15 2. 16
3. 18 4. 24

14. The Central Drugs Laboratory is established
in :
1. Calcutta 2. Lucknow
3. Mumbai 4. Kasauli

15. The members of the D.T.A.B. hold the office
for :
1. 1 year 2. 3 years
3. 5 years 4. 7 years

1. Senna is
1. Irritant laxative 2. Osmotic laxative
3. Bulk laxative 4. Emollient laxative

2. Long term use of cemetidine may cause 2
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis 2
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria
4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is 4
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above
5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means 3
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare
6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ? 1
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient
7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by 1
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium
8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is 3
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate
9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called
1
1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte
10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify 1
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella
11. P wave of ECG is the result of
1
1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization
12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in
2
1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock
13. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of 3
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea
14. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ? 2
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property
15. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ? 4
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine
16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called 1
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease
17. The Latin term for ointment is 1
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem
18. The Latin term for “When required” is 1
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim
19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline
20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is
2
1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation
21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by 1
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos
22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by 4
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium
23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following 1
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension
24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse
25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are 1
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin
26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces 3
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia
27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ? 3
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil
28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ? 1
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen
29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent
30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is 1
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis
31. In the extemporaneous preparation of eye drops the final clarification done by passing
through
1
1. Sintered glass filters
2. Gooch crucible
3. Whatman filter paper
4. Micro-porous plastic membrane
32. One of the advantages of IR heat sterilization of syringes is 3
1. Determination of internal temperature to assess the efficiency of sterilization is simple
2. More efficient than autoclaving
3. Unaffected by thermal resistance by static surface air films
4. Fast sterilization
33. International Pharmacopoeia is published by 1
1. WHO
2. International Pharmaceutical Federation
3. United Nations
4. US food and drug administration
34. In the case of sterilization by dry heat the microbes are killed by 2
1. Oxidation 2. Dehydration
3. Decomposition 4. Precipitation
35. Communicable disease caused by Rickettsiae is 4
1. Scrub typhus 2. Chancroid
3. Mumps 4. Influenza
36. One of the first aid in poisoning is by administering 1
1. Universal antidote
2. Table spoonful of mustered
3. Egg white
4. All the above
37. In hemolytic jaundice the following are true EXCEPT 4
1. Unconjugated bilirubin level increases
2. Anemia is common
3. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases
4. Liver function test normal
38. The mechanism of action of penicillin is 1
1. By inhibition of protein synthesis
2. By interference with ribosome function
3. By antimetabolite action
4. By interference with cell wall synthesis
39. Cotrimoxazole is more effective than individual administration of sulphame-thoxazole or
trimethoprim since 2
1. Both set sequentially in nucleotide synthesis
2. Sulphamethoxazole is antimetabolite and trimethoprin interfere with cell wall synthesis
3. Both binds to enzyme required for DNA replication
4. Sulphamethoxazole interfere with folic acid synthesis and trimethoprin interfere with cell
wall synthesis
40. Which of the following is fluoroquinolone derivative ? 2
1. Nitrofurantoin 2. Lomifloxacin
3. Prontocil 4. Penicillin G
41. Number of mole of ATPs produced when on mole of glucose is completely oxidized is
1. 38 2. 8 1
3. 6 4. 24
42. The word posology is derived from Greek word “posos” which means 1
1. “How much” 2. Quantity
3. Amount 4. How long
43. The dose for children can be calculated on the basis of body weight by 1
1. Young’s rule or Dilling’s rule
2. Young’s rule or Catzel rule
3. Dilling’s rule or Catzel rule
4. Catzel rule or Young’s rule
44. The metabolic fate of pyruate in the anaerobic condition is formation of
1. ATP 2. Acetyl Co-A 3
3. Lactate 4. Citric Acid
45. The samples taken from drug store by Drug Inspector for analysis shall be divided into
1. 3 2. 4 2
3. 5 4. 2
46. More scientific way of calculating paediatric dose is based on 1
1. Age 2. Body weight
3. Body surface area 4. Body height
47. The dose for a twelve year old child in terms of adult dose is 1
1. 20% 2. 12%
3. 75% 4. 50%
48. In hospitals Infra Red Radiation heat sterilization in high vacuum can be used for
sterilization of 4
1. Extemporaneous ophthalmic preparation
2. Extemporaneous ophthalmic Large Volume parenterals
3. Large instruments used in Operation Theatre
4. Rubber Cloves
49. The small knots in cotton fibre caused by uneven growth or formed during processing is
called 1
1. Neps 2. Staple
3. Card 4. Scales
50. Adsorbent cotton wool is used for 3
1. Absorbing wound exudate
2. Retaining dressing in toes
3. Skin grafting
4. Protecting Dressing
51. Which of the following is ex-officio member of Drug Technical advisory Board ? 4
1. President of Indian Medical Association
2. President of Indian Pharmaceutical Association
3. President of Indian Council of Medical Research
4. President of Medical Council of India
52. Number of schedules to Drugs and cosmetics act 1940 is 4
1. 12 2. 2
3. 40 4. 32

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Papers

53. The dressing used for burn injury is
1. Rayon 2. Cellulose wading
3. Capsicum cotton wool 4. Paraffin gauze dressing
54. In the case of sterilization by moist heat the microbes are killed by 1
1. Oxidation 2. Reduction
3. Decomposition 4. Coagulation of protein
55. Saturated steam is better heating agent than air for sterilization because it has 1
1. High latent heat
2. High pressure
3. High sensible heat
4. Low coefficient of expansion
56. Which schedule to Drugs and Cosmetics Rule provides the list of disease which a drug
may not purport to prevent or cure or make claims to prevent or cure ? 2
1. Schedule C 2. Schedule J
3. Schedule M 4. Schedule Y
57. Every record, register, or other documents seized by Drug Inspector under clause cc or cca
of Section 22 of drugs and cosmetics act 1940 shall be returned to the person within
1. 10 days 2. 20 days
3. 25 days 4. 30 days
58. Valuable test for confirmation that the steam has displaced all the air from a porous
load in a high vacuum autoclave is 3
1. Bowie – Dick Test 2. Klintex Paper Test
3. Browne’s Tube Test 4. Hour Glass Test
59. The label of package containing the drugs coming under the purview of Narcotic Drugs
and Psychotropic Substance act 1985 should 4
1. Have the symbol NRx in Red in the left top corner
2. Have warming: “Poison”
4. Have caution : it is dangerous to take the medicine except under supervision of
Registered Medical Practitioner
4. All the above
60. First step in glycolysis is 2
1. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
2. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
3. Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyrite
4. Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6 diphosphate
61. Chemical incompatibility is caused due to any of the following EXCEPT : 2
1. pH change 2. Double decomposition
3. Complex formation 4. Dissociation
62. What is the preferred pH to dispense a weakly acidic drug with pKa of 7.5 as solution ? 1
1. Less than 5 2. Less than 3
3. 7.5 4. 9
63. Oxytetracycline is produced by 1
1. Streptomyces rimous
2. Streptomyces grises
3. Streptomyces Venezuela
4. Streptomyces garyphalous
64. The precursor used in the manufacture of benzyl penicillin is 2
1. Phenyl acetic acid
2. 6-aminopenicillonic acid
3. Phenoxy acetic acid
4. 2-6, dimethoxyphenylacetic acid
65. Fainting is due to pooling of blood in lower extremities in the following 2
1. Collar syncope 2. Orthostatic syncope
3. Carotid sinus syncope 4. Vaso-vagal syncope
66. Lipase is not present in one of the following secretion 2
1. Saliva 2. Gastric juice
3. Pancreatic juice 4. Intestinal juice
67. Which of the following ins the selective COX – 2 inhibitor ? 4
1. Nimesulide 2. Mefenamic acid
3. Naproxene 4. Diclofenac
68. Which of the following NSAID is para aminophenol derivative ? 2
1. Indomethacin 2. Diclofenac
3. Paracetamol 4. Ketoprofen
69. Conversion of glycogen to glucose is known as 3
1. Glycogenesis 2. Glycolysis
3. Glycogenolysis 4. Gluconeogenesis
70. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate or lactate is called 1
1. Embden-Mayerhof pathway
2. Pentose phosphate pathway
3. Uronic acid pathway
4. Glycerophosphate shuttle
71. Opthalmic preparation may contain the medicaments as a suspension provided the
size of the 90% of the particle is less than 2
1. 1 micron 2. 5 micron
3. 7 micron 4. 10 micron

DRUG INSPECTOR Exam Practice Paper

72. The most important property of ophthalmic preparation which causes pain and irritation
is 1
1. Hypertonic solution 2. Acidic pH
3. High viscosity 4. Hypotonic solution
73. Dispensing of alkaline bicarbonate and soluble magnesium salt together will produce 4
1. Double decomposition
2. Complexation
3. Therapeutic incompatibility
4. Physical incompatibility
74. Current Pharmacopoeia of India was published in 4
1. 1955 2. 1966
3. 1986 4. 1996
75. Which of the following is NOT sexually transmitted disease ? 4
1. Gonorrhoea 2. Chancroid
3. Granuloma inguinale 4. Kala azar
76. Malaria is caused by 2
1. Protozoa 2. Bacteria
3. Fungi 4. Virus
77. Intrinsic factor is secreted by 2
1. S cells 2. K cells
3. Parietal cells 4. Duodenal mucosa
78. Pepsinogen is activated by 2
1. Enterokinase 2. HCl
3. Trypsin 4. Cl–
79. Which of the following is long acting barbiturate ? 4
1. Amylobarbitone 2. Secobarbitone
3. Thiopentone 4. Phenobarbitone
80. Which of the following is opioid antagonist ? 3
1. Buprenorphine 2. Meptazinol
3. Nalorphine 4. Nalbuphine
81. Choose the correct statement : 3
1. Buffering capacity of eye drops should be low
2. Buffering capacity of eye drops should be high
3. Eye drops should be buffered at the pH of lachrymal secretion
4. Buffer should not be used in eye drops
82. British standard tests for ophthalmic containers include all the following tests EXCEPT 1
1. Resistance for autoclaving
2. Light resistance
3. Closure efficiency
4. Gas permeability
83. Pharmacopoeia gives all the following information EXCEPT 4
1. Dose 2. Solubility
3. Therapeutic category 4. Manufacturing method
84. Pharmacopoeia is a book 4
1. Describing preparation of formulations
2. Describing dispensing techniques
3. Of standards published by respective government agency
4. All the above
85. Filariasis is caused by 1
1. Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Strongyloides stercoralis
3. Dracunculus medinensis
4. Schistosoma mansonia
86. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission of AIDS ? 3
1. Sexual contact
2. Transfusion of infected blood
3. Contact with infected towels and clothing
4. From infected mother to foetus
87. Oxyntic cells secrete one of the following : 2
1. Pepsinogen 2. HCl
3. Bicarbonate 4. Gastrin
88. Mass peristalsis is seen in 2
1. Small intestine 2. Stomach
3. Large intestine 4. Esophagus
89. Who is known as father of modern chemo-therapy ? 1
1. Paul Ehrlich 2. Louis Pasteur
3. Alexander Fleming 4. Domagle
90. The effect of sulpha drug is antagonized by 1
1. PABA 2. Folic acid
3. Sulphanilic acid 4. Thiamin
91. Hardening is one of the steps in the preparation of catguts. It is done by soaking the ribbon
obtained from the intestine in
1. Potassium Permanganate solution
2. Potassium sulphate solution
3. Chromium salt solution
4. Vanadium sulphate solution
92. Material used in the non-absorbable suture is 1
1. Silk 2. Linen
3. Metals and alloys 4. All the above
93. Children from slum area develop immunity to a variety of disease more quickly than those
children from affluent area due to 2
1. Frequent clinical infection
2. Frequent subclinical infection
3. Inadequate artificial immunization schedule
4. Acquired passive immunization
94. New born babies show high resistance to Chicken pox due to 1
1. Naturally acquired active immunization
2. Artificially stimulated active immunization
3. Naturally stimulated passive immunization
4. Artificially stimulated passive immunization
95. The following is a major relay station for sensory impulses 4
1. Medulla 2. Pons
3. Cerebellum 4. Thalamus
96. Feeding is regulated by centers in the 3
1. Cerebral cortex 2. Thalamus
3. Hypothalamus 4. Cerebellum
97. Which of the following antacid has laxative action also ? 1
1. Aluminium hydroxide 2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Calcium Carbonate 4. Sodium bicarbonate
98. Omeprazole is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer since it 4
1. Increases the secretion of mucus
2. Is H2
receptor antagonist
3. Is H1
receptor antagonist
4. Is proton pump inhibitor
99. WHO recommended drug regime for the treatment of tuberculoid leprosy is
1. Dapsone 100 mg/day + Rifampicin 600 mg/month (supervised) for 6 months
2. Dapsone 100 mg/day + Clofazimine 50 mg/month (unsupervised) for 12 months
3. Rifampicin 600 mg/month + Clofazimine 300 mg/month (unsupervised) for 12 months
4. Rifampicin 600 mg/month (supervised) + Clofazimine 300 mg/month (unsupervised) for 3
months
100. Which of the following disease is caused by parasitic protozoa ? 1
1. Leishmaniasis 2. Leprosy
3. Syphilis 4. Plague
101. How much theobroma oil is required to prepare ten suppositories containing 300 mg of
bismuth subgallate using one gram suppository mould ? (Displacement value of bismuth
subgallate is 6)
1. 9.5 g 2. 0.5 g
3. 9.5 ml 4. 0.5 ml
102. Turbidity is often produced initially when
alcohol is mixed with water which disappears subsequently. It is due to 3
1. The formation of temporary emulsion
2. Less solubility of alcohol in water
3. The precipitation of impurities
4. Liberation of air dissolved in water
103. Maximum volume blood collected at one attendance from a donor is 2
1. 420 ml 2. 250 ml
3. 100 ml 4. 940 ml
104. The blood from human volunteer is collected
from 2
1. Median cubital vein 2. Jugular vein
3. Pulmonary vein 4. Any of the above
105. The toxins are converted to toxoid by treating with 1
1. Formaldehyde
2. Autoclaving
3. By heating to 80o Celsius
4. All the above
106. Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated living bacteria ? 1
1. BCG 2. Tetanus
3. Poliomyelitis 4. Diphtheria
107. Acetylcholine is not the neurotransmitter in
the following fibers 1
1. Pre-ganglionic parasympathetics fibers
2. Post-ganglionic parasympathetics fibers
3. Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers
4. Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers of sweet glands
108. Lumbar puncture is performed for the
following reasons EXCEPT 2
1. To produce spinal anesthesia
2. To relieve intracranial pressure
3. To introduce drugs into CNS
4. To record the electrical activities of spinal cord
109. Which of the following is anti-emetic ? 2
1. Domperidone 2. Apomorphine
3. Mustard 4. Ipecacuanha
110. Which of the following is irritant purgative ? 3
1. Magnesium sulphate
2. Dioctyl sodium sulphosuccinate
3. Liquid paraffin
4. Castor oil
111. Amodiaquine is active against which phase of the life cycle of malarial parasite ? 3
1. Hepatic phase 2. Asexual parasites
3. Latent tissue phase 4. Gametocytes in mosquito
112. Drug acting against only extra intestinal amoebiasis is 2
1. Quinidochlor 2. Dilaxanide furoate
3. Tetracycline 4. Chloroquine
113. How much 95% alcohol is required to prepare 1000 ml of 60% alcohol ?
1. 631.5 2. 621.6
3. 658.33 4. 641.6
114. A prescription is an order, to supply medicine, from 4
1. Doctor 2. Dentist
3. Veterinary surgeon 4. All the above
115. Blood collected from donor is stored in sealed containers at ? 3
1. –20o Celsius 2. –80o Celsius
3. 4
o
to 6o Celsius 4. 15o
to 20o Celsius
116. In emergency conditions where the whole blood is not available or until matching test
are known the following can be used 2
1. Concentrated human RBC
2. Dried human plasma
3. Human plasma protein fraction
4. Human fibrinogen
117. Venereal disease is contracted by 1
1. Physical contact 2. Hand infection
3. Arthopod vector 4. Droplet infection
118. Rod shaped bacteria are called 2
1. Cocci 2. Bacilli
3. Spirochetes 4. Vibrio
119. Decoction process is used for 4
1. Alcohol soluble and heat stable constituents of plants
2. Water soluble and thermo labile constituents of plants
3. Water insoluble and heat stable constituents of plants
4. Water soluble and heat stables constituents of plants
120. The normal pace maker of the heart is 2
1. Atrio-ventricular node 2. Sino-atrial node
3. Bundle of His 4. Purkinje fibers
121. Which of the following is the primary effect of digitalis in congestive cardiac failure ?
2
1. Decreased heart rate
2. Increased force of contraction of myocardium
3. Decreased venous out put
4. Increased urinary out put
122. Plant extract in the form of plastic mass is known as : 1
1. Pilular extract 2. Liquid extract
3. Fluid extract 4. Powder extract
123. Which of the following is penicillinase resistant penicillin ? 1
1. Benzyl penicillin 2. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
3. Cloxacillin 4. Penicillin G
124. Which of the following is not a macrolide antibiotic ? 1
1. Erythromycin 2. Oleandomycin
3. Spiromycin 4. Gentamicin
125. Choose the correct statement with respect to requirement of paediatric dose 1
1. The dose requirement is directly proportional
to age
2. The dose requirement is directly proportional
to height
3. A child require larger dose per/kg than adult
4. A child require lesser dose per/kg than adult
126. The percentage by volume of alcohol in proof spirit is 3
1. 57.10 2. 42.9
3. 49.28 4. 95
127. The bandage prepared from fabrics with cotton warp and wool weft is
1. Domette bandage 2. Stretch bandage
3. Cambric bandage 4. Cotton stretch bandage
128. Crepe bandage is helpful in all the following conditions EXCEPT 2
1. For giving light support to sprains and strains
2. For correctional purpose
3. As a compression bandage
4. To protect clothing from dressing
129. Bactericides used in sterilization by heating with bactericide are 1
1. Chlorocresol and Phenylmercuric Nitrate
2. Fomaldehyde and Chlorocresol
3. Phenyl mercuric nitrate and Methyl paraben
4. Chlorocresol and Methyl paraben
130. Presence of antibacterial agents in injectables requires that the antibacterial agent
inactivated before sterility testing. One of te methods to inactivation is by dilution with 3
1. Water 2. Normal saline
3. Culture medium 4. (2) or (3)
131. During prolonged starvation the glucose required for brain function is made available
by 3
1. Citric acid cycle 2. Glycogenesis
3. Gluconeogenesis 4. Glycogenesis
132. Increased blood glucose level may be due to 1
1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Hyper activity of thyroid
3. Emotional stress 4. All the above
133. Which of the following cardiovascular drug produce tachycardia ? 3
1. Propranolol 2. Procainamide
3. Quinidine 4. Lignocaine
134. Which of the following is calcium channel blocker ? 2
1. Amlodipin 2. Atenalol
3. Isesorbide dinitrate 4. Minoxidil
135. Cephalosporins are derivative of 1
1. Betalactam 2. Quinoline
3. Fluoroquinolone 4. Carbapenem
136. Which of the following antifungal agent is a polyene derivative ? 2
1. Amphotericin B 2. Clotrimazole
3. Griseofulvin 4. Flucytosine
137. 30 degree under proof spirit means 2
1. 100 volume of the spirit contains 30 volume of proof spirit
2. 100 volume of the spirit contains 70 volume of proof spirit
3. 100 volume of the spirit when diluted give 130 ml of proof spirit
4. 100 volume of the spirit when diluted give 170 ml of proof spirit
138. Intra venous injection of hypotonic solution may cause 4
1. Hemolysis
2. Shrinkage of RBC
3. Crenulation of blood cells
4. All the above

DRUG INSPECTOR PRACTICE QUESTION & ANSWERS – DI EXAM PRACTICE PAPER
139. Catgut is prepared from the intestine of 2
1. Cat 2. Pig
3. Ox 4. Sheep
140. Strings used for tying blood vessels during surgery is called 2
1. Ligature 2. Suture
3. Catgut 4. Fibers
141. Exotoxins are 1
1. Structural elements of bacteria
2. Normally found in Gram negative bacteria
3. Water soluble, high molecular weight protein or enzyme
4. Much less toxic
142. Virulence of bacteria is increased by 2
1. Growing under artificial condition
2. Successive and fairly rapid transfer from one susceptible host to another
3. Growing in an unfavorable condition
4. Growing in unnatural host
143. Which of the following is obtained from animal ? 2
1. Cantharidin 2. Ichthamnol
3. Diatomaceous earth 4. Vincristine
144. Sensory cortex is located in the following lobe of the cerebral cortex 1
1. Frontal lobe 2. Parietal lobe
3. Occipital lobe 4. Temporal lobe
145. Which of the following increases the steady state plasma concentration of digitalis when
co-administered ? 2
1. Aspirin 2. Verapamil
3. Paracetamol 4. Steroids
146. Maceration in which gentle heat is used during the process of extraction is called 2
1. Percolation 2. Infusion
3. Decoction 4. Digestion
147. Use of antibiotic is not justified in the prophylaxis of all the following conditions EXCEPT
3
1. Meningococcal infection in children
2. Endocarditis
3. Infection during catheterization
4. Infection due to climatic change
148. All the following are the reason for the difficulty in the treatment of T.B. EXCEPT 2
1. Occurrence of persister
2. Non availability of effective drug
3. Tubercle bacilli can remain viable and multiply even when ingested by macrophage
4. The cessation and fibrosis tend to block the
blood vessel making penetration of drugs
difficult
149. Which of the following injection is made slightly hypertonic ? 1
1. IV injection for rapid action
2. IM injection for rapid absorption
3. Intracutaneo injection is for rapid absorption
4. Subcutaneous injection for rapid absorption
150. Displacement value of zinc oxide with reference to theobroma oil is 5. That means 2
1. 1 g of zinc oxide replaces 5 g of theobroma oil
2. 5 g of zinc oxide replaces 1 g of theobroma oil
3. 1 ml of zinc oxide replaces 5 ml of theobromaoil
4. 5 ml of zinc oxide replaces 1 ml of theobroma oil

11. Williamson Synthesis is used for the preparation of:
(a) Aldehydes
(b) Alcohols
(c) Ethers
(d) Amides

12. Ketoconazole structure contains :
(a) Imidazole ring
(b) Triazole ring
(c) Tetrazole ring
(d) Thiazole ring

13. Vitamin containing steroidal moiety is:
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin B12

14. Dragendorff’s reagent is employed for the identification of :
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Alkaloids
(c) Flavonoids
(d) Proteins

15. In which one among the following is Pteridine ring system present?
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Thiamine
(c) Pyridoxine
(d) Folic acid

16. Aminophylline is a combination of:
(a) Theophylline and dimethylamine
(b) Caffeine and theophylline
(c) Theophylline and ethylenediamine
(d) Caffeine and ethylenediamine

17. Purine ring system is a fusion of:
(a) Pyridine and imidazole
(b) Pyrimidine and imidazole
(c) Piperidine and pyrazole
(d) Piperidine and imidazole

18. Furosemide contains the following heterocycle:
(a) Furan
(b) Thiophene
(c) Pyrrole
(d) Imidazole

19. Term of every patent in India (under Indian Patent Act) from the date of filing is:
(a) 10 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 24 years

20. Raloxifene is indicated for use in:
(a) Rickets
(b) Hypoparathyroidism
(c) Postmenopausal osteoporosis
(d) Intestinal osteodystrophy

1. Zero order kinetics is seen in all except:
(a) Salicylates
(b) Barbiturates
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Ethanol

2. Which one of the following is not a prodrug?
(a) Chloral hydrate
(b) Diazepam
(c) Enalapril
(d) Oxcarbazepine

3. Which one of the following drugs does not cross the placental barrier?
(a) Morphine
(b) Lithium
(c) Warfarin
(d) Heparin

4. The evidence which indicates that a drug is stored extravascularly is:
(a) Small clearance
(b) Small apparent volume of distribution
(c) Large apparent volume of distribution
(d) Large clearance

5. Which one among the following drugs can be given safely during pregnancy?
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) Primaquine

6. Lignocaine is used in the treatment of :
(a) Atrial Flutter
(b) Atrial Fibrillation
(c) PSVT
(d) Ventricular tachycardia

7. Which one among the following drugs is used in AV block?
(a) Isoprenaline
(b) Propranolol
(c) Dopamine
(d) Disopyramide

8. Mineralocorticoids cause:
(a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Glycogen synthesis
(c) Lipolysis
(d) Sodium reabsorption

9. In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is:
(a) Tungsten lamp
(b) Sodium lamp
(c) Deuterium lamp
(d) None of these

10. The principle of infrared spectra is based upon:
(a) Electronic excitation
(b) Resonance
(c) Dissociation
(d) Molecular vibrations

182 : –: : 210 : 380
(1)-. 342
(2) 272
(3) 240
(4) 156

In a particular code FACE is written as GBDF. In the same code BADE is to be
written as
(1) CBEF
(2) CEBF
(3) CFBE
(4) CBFE

In a patricular code TAP is written as SZO. In the same code FREEZE is to be written as .f~!>O’Y !’
(1) EQDFYG
(2) •ESDFYF
(3) GQFDYF
(4) EQDDYD

In a code MHUSMD is written as LI’ITLE. In the same code NTUD is to be written as
(1) MOVE
(2) MUTE
(3) MITE
(4) MATE

In a particular code AUTHOR is written as AUOTHR. In the same code PUBLIC is to be written as
(1) UBIPLC
(2), UIPBLC
(3) PCUBIL
(4) PBILCU

86, 48, 38, 14, 96, 54, 78, –
(1) 56
(2) 62
(3) 81
(4) 76

Fill the gap in the following with proper number
5,8, 13,21,34,55,
1) 85
(2) 92
(3) 89
(4) 58

A person saves Rs. 100/- after spending”from his income 1/5 on food and 3/5 on clothes. What is total income?
(1) Rs. 20
(2) Rs. 80
(3) Rs. 400
C4Y Rs. 500

Person ate 7 apples in 7 minutes. One person could eat one Apple in how many
minutes
(1) 7
(2) 2
(3) 49
(4) 117

Fill the gaps m the following with pro er numbers
5;6, 12, 10,28,26,62,62,-,-
(1) I 1_32, 126
(2) 132, 185
(3) 123, 126
( 4) 126, 132-

Fill the gap in the following with proper numbers
2, 12,36,80, 150,
1) 252
(2) 264•
(3) 384
(4) 272

6. Lignocaine is used in the treatment of :
(a) Atrial Flutter
(b) Atrial Fibrillation
(c) PSVT
(d) Ventricular tachycardia

7. Which one among the following drugs is used in AV block?
(a) Isoprenaline
(b) Propranolol
(c) Dopamine
(d) Disopyramide

8. Mineralocorticoids cause:
(a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Glycogen synthesis
(c) Lipolysis
(d) Sodium reabsorption

9. In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is:
(a) Tungsten lamp
(b) Sodium lamp
(c) Deuterium lamp
(d) None of these

10. The principle of infrared spectra is based upon:
(a) Electronic excitation
(b) Resonance
(c) Dissociation
(d) Molecular vibrations

RRB Pharmacist Exam Government Pharmacist DI Exam Books Preparation PDF

RRB Pharmacist Exam Government Pharmacist DI Exam Books Preparation PDF

Pharmacist Exam Books Preparation PDF

Before any exam, the collection of study materials and books are inevitable. When it comes to competitive exams those are held nationally, the hurdle gets tougher. But there is no need to worry, for those who are keen to put their all-out effort in getting the exams cleared. The same applies to the Pharmacist exams being mostly held in government sector for some seats every year. Contenders who are applying the Pharmacist jobs need to take part the written test and further selection process.

Interested candidates need to take the Pharmacist Exam study materials including the previous question papers and books. It will make effective preparation for the applicants at the time of the Pharmacist Exam. Applicants need to go through the Pharmacist Solved question papers. While coming to books, those are written in the very concise form and designed for the candidates who are preparing for the competitive examination. In fact, it is far more advantageous if one keeps soft copies of all these materials handy. These books conglomerate the comprehensive information of the diverse subject in this discipline. Apart from getting basic subject knowledge of pharmacy, these books will help immensely to inculcate the subject matter to prepare themselves for different competitive examination either to go for higher studies or in a different level of written text for recruitment procedure. Presented in a simple manner to understand the matter and can memorize in the easiest way. You can access all the essential areas of major subjects in Pharmacy i.e. Pharmaceutics, Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Pharmacognosy, Pharmacology, Forensic Pharmacy, Biochemistry, Analytical Chemistry, and Microbiology to some extent.

It may happen that some candidates are unable to download the online files quickly but here we have tried to compile the direct and redirecting links which will surely be helpful for them.

Following are the books of Pharmacist Exam

Alfonso-R-Gennaro . Remington:

 The .Science and Practice of Pharmacy. [] 

               

Alfonso-R-Gennaro . Remington:

 The Science and Practice of Pharmacy. []

               

Gary D. Hall & Barry S. Reiss –

Appleton & Lange’s Review of Pharmacy

               

  1. B. Hugo & A. D. Russel –

Pharmaceutical Microbiology            

               

Mathews, Van Holde & Ahern –

Biochemistry         

               

W C Evans –

Trease & Evans-Pharmacognosy

               

Arun Bahl, BS Bahl and G.D take –

Basics of Physical Chemistry

               

Thomas L. Lemke & David A. Williams –

Principles Of Medicinal Chemistry

               

Loyd V. Allen Jr., Nicholas G. Popovich –

Ansel’s Pharmaceutical Dosage Forms

RRB Pharmacist Exam Government Pharmacist DI Exam Books Preparation PDF               

Sally S. Roche –

Roche Clinical Pharmacology primaries

               

ME Aulton –

pharmaceuticals: science design dosage form

               

Bertram G. Katzung –

basic clinical pharmacy

Best Books and How to prepare for Pharmacist Paramedical exam               

Spalding Gray –

Gray’s Anatomy

  1. F. Ganong –

Medical Physiology

                Arther C. Guyton –

Medical Physiology

                Mark G. Papich –

Saunders Veterinary E Directory Drugs book: small and large animals

                Jahangir Mweene –

pharmacy technician: comprehensive approach

                Morrison and Boyd –

Organic Chemistry

                Patrick J. Cinco –

Pharmacy Martin physical & Pharmaceutical-Sciences

                Donald C. Singer –

Audit Quality Laboratory of compliance and regulatory

                Albert L. Lehninger, David Lee Nelson, Michael Cox M. –

Principles of Biochemistry Lehninger

                Lauren Zentz –

Mathematics for pharmacy technicians

                John Bell and M. John Block –

book Wilson and Gisvold of Organic Chemistry medical and pharmaceutical

                Graham L. Patrick –

Introduction to Medicinal Chemistry

                Karen Baxter –

source book interactions, mechanisms, and clinical significance Management

                BNF for Children –

                Leon Shargel, Susanna Wu Bong, Andrew Yu –

bio-pharmacy and Applied Pharmacokinetics

                Dr. Gary Walsh –

biopharmaceuticals: biochemistry and biotechnology

                Howard_C. Ansel –

pharmaceutical_calculations

                Leon_Shargel, Alan_H_Mutnick, Paul-F-Souney, Larry-N-Swanson –

Comprehensive_Pharmacy_Review

                Leon Shargel, Alan H Mutnick, Paul-F-Souney, Larry-N-Swanson –

Comprehensive_Pharmacy_Review

                Shane Desselle, David Zgarrick –

Pharmacy Management: Essentials for all practice settings

  1. P. Rang, M. M. Dale, J. M. Ritter, P. K. Moore –

Pharmacology

                Manual pharmaceutical excipients

                Ryan Donnelly, Johan Barry –

choice questions in pharmaceutical calculations

                Donald_Cairns –

Essentials_of_Pharmaceutical_Chemistry

Review

Here the reader will get a brief fundamental content having a degree or diploma or going to be a qualified person in this field. While going through, hope the reader will be benefitted out of this effort of collective compilation. Wish you all the best for your bright future.

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers QA + QC PDF – Pharma Company Job Interview

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers QA + QC PDF - Pharma Company Job Interview

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers

The fact is very common and it was observed during research that on average 80% of candidates suffer from Interview Fear / Phobia. At the same time those who are able to overcome the fear of exposure, are certain to be successful in any case. Once you clear the Job Requirement, you have to jot down the probable questions and their answers i.e. what all an interviewer can ask you thus making your own interview study material. While doing this sought help from your friends and seniors who are in similar position or industry. If you practise this exercise seriously, you will be able to find out mostly asked questions and you are ready to prompt 80% of the interview correctly. Quality Control Executive jobs are offered for bachelor’s degree and B. Pharmacy fresher, as well as experienced persons, are eligible to apply.

In the pharmaceutical industry, usually, one should qualify the first round of exam for attending the face to face interview. It also depends on which pharmaceutical company you are applying for. It is very important to understand the job profile and what kind of individual is needed for that position. For that clarity, you have to identify your strengths and weaknesses. It is advisable not to enter into any kind of argument with Interviewer. Accept that the interviewer(s) have more experience, listen carefully to them and never argue to justify your point during the interview. Besides knowledge, organizations prefer to choose people who are honest and also flexible in their approach. Rigidity in approach may cost you your position as the business environment is changing very fast these days.

Before the interview closes, it is better to ask for feedback from interviewer irrespective of how your interview went. With this, the impact becomes Organization members feel that candidate has a seeking attitude and is willing to accept feedback resulting in a favorable impression about the candidate.

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers

Below some are given to have an idea of what sort of questions one may prepare.

Q/A

What is the difference between quality assurance and quality control?

Quality control is the process of identifying the defect and quality assurance is a process of improvement Quality control is reactive Action quality assurance is a protective action QC is a set of actions. Quality control takes CORRECTIVE ACTION during production,

Quality Assurance takes PREVENTIVE ACTION during development or after production (for completely prevention, if any defect arises)

What is the difference between Quality Assurance, Quality Control and Audit Function?

Quality assurance is a set of activities involved in the processes and Quality control is set of activities involved in product and audit function is nothing but the periodic inspection in the quality system.

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers QA + QC PDF - Pharma Company Job Interview

What does 6 Sigma represent?

Six Sigma represents the six standard deviations from the mean toward the upper specification limit in a normally distributed sample where an average of 3.4 defects per million is reported to live.  

Differentiate between product quality and process quality.

Product quality deals with the given specification of an individual product whereas the process quality deals with the process capability of the process that how much it can be effective to produce the quality products.

What is the maximum Acceptable Tolerance Limit for any product?

It is a TOLERANCE limit which is set by CONSUMER for acceptable any lot, parts, etc, generally within +/-5%

How do you track bug and report through Quality Control dept?

  • Tracking by sampling process, through
  • FIR (Final Inspection Report)
  • FOI (First off Approval Inspection Report)
  • Patrol Inspection Report

In Quality Assurance Plan & QC, what can be implemented to reduce rework in Acoustic Enclosure for manufacturing company?

  • Proper machine maintenance,
  • Consistent quality checks on the product,
  • Purchasing of quality raw materials,
  • Training and awareness of the operating procedure of the machine.

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers QA + QC PDF – Pharma Company Job Interview

When do we use a c-chart?

C chart is used when the item is too complex to analyse the product for confirming or not- confirming and subgroup size is same. It is used to monitor the number of defects per unit

What is meant by risk? How can you avoid the risks?

A risk is the possibility that an unfavourable event may occur. It may be predictable or unpredictable. A risk may have 3 components:

  • The event that could occur;
  • The probability that the event will occur;
  • The impact/consequences of the event that if it occurs.

 

One can avoid Risk by

  1. Identifying the Risk, 2. Quantifying the risk i.e. by Risk identification & Risk Prioritization. 3. Risk Response Development 4.Risk Resolution & Risk Monitoring.

 

Here we have provided most commonly asked basic questions for the QCE pharmacy interview. There is no specific pattern/rule for asking the interview questions. As the level goes up the pattern also becomes changed for the particular cases where the candidate has worked in projects’ and sometimes they also may ask about the knowledge of the organization. It’s purely an interviewer choice. These interview related information of QC in pharmacy are based on some experienced interviewees suggestions. Hopefully, it would be of help!

 

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? If You have this in your mind this article is for you. When you want to crack government DI Examination then you must read this post from pharmawiki.in. We will help you to get Drug Inspector job in an easy and smarter way. Even though hard work pays you success these days you need to work smart to punch the door of success.

Every year hundreds of thousands of candidates aim to sit for the exams held by the central and the state Govt. Drug Inspector is one of those posts of government sector that people acquiring background in medicine and pharmacy field have always wanted to go for. Hence, just sitting in exam is not fruitful until one cracks it. So, tight preparation for this exam is very essential.

Basically the Drug Inspector exam is divided into two parts one is written and the other is viva-voce. One has to qualify a written examination and interview along with the physical fitness test to become eligible for appointment. The papers shall comprise of objective type multiple choice based questions.

The Paper I shall contain subject specific questions. The Paper II shall consist of general studies and mental ability questions. The candidates should also prepare for the General Science questions including recent developments in the field of Science & Technology.

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam?
Few tips for the best preparation:

  • Start as early as possible for the preparation. Firstly you have to learn about the syllabus and important topics of the examination. You need proper basic knowledge of the entire subject, hence focus to improve your basics.
  • Make notes for every subject. Prepare pharmacy portion strongly with daily revision. Also keep an eye over the GK & Current affairs. Practice is the key to crack DI exam. Solve more and more MCQ so that it enhances your accuracy. By doing this, you can eliminate the wrong options easily during exam.
  • Go through the question bank papers of DI examination. You should study at least 8 to 10 hours regularly to leave no place unseen.
  • Lastly you have to be stress free and dehydrated, full with energy. Preferably, don’t waste time for a particular question in exam hall.

Role of Drug Inspectors

They are qualified persons working in the manufacturing and distribution sector of drugs. Using their technical and intellectual ability these professionals grade diverse products.

Their prime responsibility is to inspect whether the medicines maintain legal standards of sanitation, limpidness, and grading. They visit various pharmacies, laboratories and drug-manufacturing stores to check the quality of the manufactured products those are sold.

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

All the very best for your preparation time which consequently lead you to the family of government sector  Pharmaceutical Drug Inspector Job vacancy.

GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise – GPAT MATERIAL PDF – Pharmacy Previous Papers

GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise - GPAT MATERIAL PDF - Pharmacy Previous Papers

GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise: The Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test is called as GPAT, which is an annual all India examination conducted by All India Council for Technical Education, New Delhi. The test is for the evaluation of Pharmacy graduates candidates seeking admission into the Masters (M. Pharm) program in recognized universities and private colleges offering Post Graduation studies in Pharmacy. The results are also used to determine eligibility of students for scholarships and other financial assistance.

GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise - GPAT MATERIAL PDF - Pharmacy Previous Papers
GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise – GPAT MATERIAL PDF – Pharmacy Previous Papers

It consists of Multiple Choice Questions from the subjects such as Pharmaceutics, Pharmaceutical Analysis, Pharmacognosy, Medicinal Chemistry, Biochemistry, Organic Chemistry, Pharmacology, Microbiology and Basics of Pharmaceutical Sciences. There will be emphasis on analytical chemistry as well with questions mostly from B. Pharmacy syllabus. Numerical part is also very important part of the exam and most students are prone to skip them. Generally, the numerical questions that are asked in the exam are from Pharmacokinetics, Posology. Hence it is recommended to solve numerical sums right from the B.Pharm course when one aims for GPAT. GPAT Exam is considered to be one of the most important exams so it is must for the student to do the best preparation. Students those appearing for GPAT have to study standard textbooks for good score in GPAT. For thorough study, one needs to study in details the subjects allotted. Following the syllabus of the GPAT is essential as the exam is held every year in the month of January tentatively.

The list of the study materials and books are as follows:

GPAT Books for Basics of Pharmaceutical Sciences

  • Health Education & Community Pharmacy: For First Year Diploma by N. S. Parmar
  • Remington : The Science and Practice of Pharmacy : Alfonso R Gennaro
  • The Theory And Practice Of Industrial Pharmacy : Lachman

GPAT Books for Organic Chemistry: 

  • By Morrison & Boyd
  • Advance Organic Chemistry: Reaction, Mechanism & Structure by Jerry March

GPAT Books for Medicinal Chemistry: 

  • By Wilson & Gisvold’s Textbook of Organic Medicinal and Pharmaceutical Chemistry 11th Ed.

GPAT Books for Biochemistry:

  • Biochemistry: By Lehninger
  • By Satyanarayan

EBooks:

  • Biochemistry of Lipids, Lipoproteins and Membranes edited by J.E. Vance, Dennis E. Vance
  • Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology by By M. R. Chaudhari, Y. A. Kulkarni, S. B. Gokhale
  • Lipids: Biochemistry, Biotechnology and Health By Michael I. Gurr, John L. Harwood, Keith N

GPAT Books for Physical Chemistry:

EBooks:

  • Physical Chemistry by Dr. R. R. Misra
  • Physical Chemistry Lecture Notes by Prof. Rob Schurko R.W. Schurko, University of Windsor
  • Introductory Physical Chemistry bynbsp; Rob Schurko
  • Advanced Physical Chemistry By Carol A. Venanzi

GPAT Books for Pharmacology: 

  • Rang & Dale, K.D. Tripati, Goodman & Gilman.

EBooks:

  • Pharmacology Test Prep: 1500 USMLE-Style Questions & Answers, By Mario Babbini, Mary L. Thomas
  • Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 14E by Bertram G. Katzung, Anthony J. Trevor

GPAT Books for Pharmaceutics:

  • Pharmaceutics: The Science of Dosage Form Design by Aulton
  • Physical Pharmacy by Martin.
  • By Ansel

EBooks:

  • Modern Pharmaceutics by banker Rhodes

 

GPAT Books for Pharmaceutical Analysis:

  • Spectroscopy – Silverstein
  • Instrumental methods of Chemical Analysis – B. K. Sarma
  • Text Book of Pharmaceutical Analysis – K. A. Connors
  • Instrumental methods of Chemical Analysis – Chatwal
  • Analytical Chemistry Skoog’s
  • By Dr. Ravi Shankar

GPAT Books for Microbiology:

  • Industrial microbiology by Cascida
  • Microbiology by Pelzar
  • Industrial microbiology by Prescott and Dunn

GPAT Books for Pharmacognosy:

  • Text Book of Pharmacognosy by K. Kokate
  • Text Book of Pharmacognosy by E. Walis
  • Text Book of Pharmacognosy by Treas and Evans

GPAT Books are according to the subjects, so you might have some difficulty to get the books for GPAT according to the subjects. If one wants to get admission in these courses then he/she must refer to the best GPAT preparation books and GPAT Subject-Wise Study Material. One may refer to the also refer the GPAT entrance examination books that will help as a guide and the eBooks in PDF can be downloaded too. Here we have tried our best to compile the books subject wise so that the readers don’t have to put much effort and time in the searching process. Hope this information will definitely help the candidates to do the best preparation for the exam.

All the best!

GPAT Sample Questions:

21-One fluid ounce is?
Ans-30 ml
Note- A fluid ounce (abbreviated fl oz) is a unit of volume (also called capacity) typically used for measuring liquids.

22-The plant drug which is oxytocic?
Ans-Ergot
Note- Oxytocic are the agents that stimulate uterine contraction, used in Induction of labor and to control postpartum bleeding. Ergot Alkaloids- Ergometrine & Methyl ergometrine is used.

23-The diagnostic agent used for the functioning of thyroid gland?
Ans-I-131
Note- Thyroid gland produce, store, and release hormones into the bloodstream so the hormones can reach the body’s cells. The thyroid gland uses iodine from the foods you eat to make two main hormones: Triiodothyronine (T3) and Thyroxine (T4)

24-The constituent of cholesterol termed as bad cholesterol is?
Ans-LDL
Note- VLDL cholesterol is a type of blood fat. It’s considered one of the “bad” forms of cholesterol, along with LDL cholesterol and triglycerides. (LDL) are called as “bad” cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol can build up in your arteries, causing heart disease.

25-Sterols belongs to the class of?
Ans-Lipids
Note- Sterols, also known as steroid alcohols, are a subgroup of the steroids, occur naturally in plants, animals, and fungi, with the most familiar type of animal sterol being cholesterol.

26-Hepatitis is a?
Ans-Viral infection
Note- Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver tissue, There are five main types of viral hepatitis: Type A, B, C, D, and E.

27-A leukotriene receptor antagonist used in allergic cough is?
Ans-Montelukast
Note- Leukotriene receptor antagonists, such as montelukast, zafirlukast, and pranlukast used to treat allergies and prevent asthma attacks.

28-The sulphonamide used in burn therapy is?
Ans-Sulfadiazine
Note- Sulphonamides are synthetic antimicrobial agents that contain the sulfonamide group.silver sulfadiazine is applied to the skin to treat and prevent wound infections associated with second or third degree burns.

29-A hypotonic solution made isotonic by adding?
Ans-Sodium chloride
Note- Hypertonic solution is a particular type of solution that has a greater concentration of solutes on the outside of a cell when compared with the inside of a cell.
Hypertonic solution is a particular type of solution that has a greater concentration of solutes on the inside of a cell when compared with the outside of a cell.

30-The pathogenic organism in milk is killed by?
Ans-Pasteurization
Note- Pasteurization to kill pathogenic bacteria has helped reduce the transmission of diseases, such as typhoid fever, tuberculosis, polio etc.

GPAT Books are according to the subjects, so you might have some difficulty to get the books for GPAT according to the subjects. If one wants to get admission in these courses then he/she must refer to the best GPAT preparation books and GPAT Subject-Wise Study Material. One may refer to the also refer the GPAT entrance examination books that will help as a guide and the eBooks in PDF can be downloaded too. Here we have tried our best to compile the books subject wise so that the readers don’t have to put much effort and time in the searching process. Hope this information will definitely help the candidates to do the best preparation for the exam.

All the best for your GPAT Examination!

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

Drug Inspector exam- Subjects, Syllabus, Books, and Practice Papers are  here in this article. The Government exam of Drug Inspector is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission known as UPSC and also various state PSCs and Staff Selection committees on an annual basis. All the interested candidates those are eligible can register application form after going through the UPSC Drug Inspector Notification released every year. According to the official notification, the application is invited to online mode and candidates can register from December month of the year. The vacancies are available for the appointment of Drug Inspector vacancy in various departments. Additional details about eligibility criteria like qualification, a method of the application procedure, selection process and other required details are also available on the official website. The recruitment process for these Drug Inspector vacancies will be completed by the next year in the month of October. All the qualified candidates who are aspiring to be the Drug Inspector, they can send the application form to exam community with the help of postal services. The application fee can be paid offline or online mode before the deadline.

Aspirants who are seeking for Drug inspector posts should possess the bachelor degree in medicine/ science/degree in Pharmacy with minimum 45% marks in the qualifying exam from any PCI recognized university. All the job seekers who want to work as Drug inspector should have a minimum experience of 18 months in the testing/manufacturing field or be a registered Pharmacist. Candidate should be Indian citizen; minimum age should be 35 years and maximum 50 years as per the government rules & regulation. Relaxation of 5 years is allowed for the reserved category. A category wise or state wise recruitment details are available in the official advertisement.

For the candidate to be aware of the curriculum here we are notifying the subjects, syllabus, books and the practice papers of the Drug Inspector Exam.

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI – Exam Pattern

Paper Subject Marks Duration
Paper-I Pharmacy 200 marks 2 Hours
Paper-II General  Studies and Mental Ability 50 marks 1 Hour

Check here Drug Inspector Exam Solved papers

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Pharmacy Syllabus

 

Human Anatomy & Physiology Pharmacognosy
Clinical Pathology Biochemistry
Drug Store Management Pharmaceutical Chemistry
Pharmaceutics Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy
Pharmacology Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence
Accountancy Health Education & Community Pharmacy
Toxicology Commerce

 

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Studies and Mental Ability Syllabus

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Knowledge

 

Indian Constitution Science – Inventions & Discoveries
History Budget and Five Year Plans
Geography Important Financial & Economic News
Economy Scientific Research
Culture India and its neighbouring countries
Sports Knowledge of Current Events
General Politics Current Affairs – National & International
Economy, Banking, and Finance Countries & Capitals

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Intelligence

 
Logical Reasoning Syllogism
Blood Relations Input Output
Coding Decoding Alphanumeric Series
Ranking/Direction/Alphabet Test Data Sufficiency
Coded Inequalities Seating Arrangement
Puzzle Tabulation  

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI English

 

Articles Prepositions
Tenses Verbs
Synonyms Antonyms
Proverbs Conjunctions
Sentences Structure Phrases
Unseen Passage Vocabulary

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Tentative books recommended

  • Tutorial Pharmacy by Cooper and Gunn
  • Forensic Pharmacy by C. Kokate (for the drug laws)
  • General Studies Paper I for Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2018
  • Lucents General Knowledge book
  • NCERT Books Set (English Medium) for UPSC Exam (Prelims, Mains), IAS, Civil Services, IFS, IES and other exams

 Check more about Drug Inspector Exam

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Model Test Papers

  • Pharmarocks- The Way of Success DI study material booklet, model papers by Mr. Amar Raval
  • One can follow our website for the latest updates of the mock papers for self-practice.

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

It depends on the state level as well as the central level based on which the general studies including the G.K questions may come. All those candidates who are going to attempt the examination must prepare through the previous year papers, Drug inspector model papers. If anyone is admitted to coaching classes then most of the centres will also make the student practice previous year question paper. The old question papers can be downloaded for free from the internet.

Drug Inspector Exam Practice:

Here are few basics You must know.

  • A break in a capsule is a fracture in the surface of the capsule.
  • A break in a tablet is the separation or dislodging of more than
    10 percent of the tablet.
  • Caking in suspensions is the settling of the solid material in a suspension tothe bottom; the cake does not easily redisperse on shaking.
  • Capping or cavitations of tablets is the separation (or tendency toward separation) of aportion of the upper or lower surface of the tablet.
  • Capsule shapes bulletlike
    conventional
    elliptical (oval)
    oblong
    round
    tapered ends
    various special shapes
  • Capsule types • hard gelatin shell that consists of two pieces:
  • a base containing the medicine and a cap covering
    the base 
  • soft gelatin shell consisting of two flexible pieces formed into a body that is permanently sealed and that may contain a liquid, powder, or semisolid.
  • Chain of custody is the record of individuals who have accessed sample material from the time of collection by an inspector until its ultimate destruction. Both the record and the sample, from its time of collection to the time of its destruction, must be kept safely (under key and lock) and under systematic control.
  • Certificate of Analysis is a document supplied by the manufacturer summarising the physical and analytical data for a particular lot or batch of drug product; is the basis for the product batch or lot being released for sale.
  • Chipping is removal of parts of the tablet, usually at the edges; caused by low friability.
  • Confiscate is to officially take away from a vendor or importer
    and to assume custody of a drug consignment stocked
    on the premises or at the port of entry. The intention
    is to stop the drugs’ distribution to the public. Usually
    done for drugs shown to be counterfeit or of
    substandard quality or associated with unexpected
    illness or death.
    Consignment or “R” number is a consignment tracking reference number assigned
    by the India Revenue Authority. “R” stands for
    “reference.” This number, together with the date,
    distinctively identifies an imported consignment.
  • Detain is to perform the following actions:
    1. Write “DETAIN” in the space provided in the Port of Entry Consignment Inspection Form.
    2. Stop the inspection, complete the Rejection/Detention Form, and inform the India  Revenue Authority/Customs and Excise Department of the rejection or detention.
    3. Give a copy of the form to the India Revenue Authority and the customer.
    4. Refer the importer/consignee to the TFDA.
    5. Upon resolution of detention issues by written instructions from the TFDA, continue the inspection
    from where it stopped.
  • Detention is the retention of a consignment pending resolution of outstanding issues by the TFDA. However, if the issues are not resolved to the satisfaction of the TFDA, detention status, upon written instructions
    from the TFDA, is converted to rejection.
  • Final Classification and Valuation Report is prepared at the exporting country port by COTECNA, which is the third-party contractor to the India Revenue Authority/Customs and Excise Department. The Final  Classification and Valuation
    Report, a Customs and Excise Department document, confirms that the imported goods have the correct
    quality, quantity, and value.
    First expiring, first out is a practice intended to keep the product inventory in good rotation to prevent pharmaceuticals and supplies from expiring on the shelf.
    GPHF Minilab stands for German Pharma Health Fund Minilab, a pharmaceutical product testing kit that has materials for colour reaction, thin-layer chromatography, and disintegration testing of essential drugs.
  • Immediate container is a type of packaging such as a tin or a bottle that is in direct contact with the medicine; also referred to as the “primary container.”
  • Import Certificate is a document issued by the TFDA authorising the importation of approved drugs into the country.
    Liquid or semisolid dosage forms can be a clear liquid, a suspension, or a dry powder for a suspension that must be reconstituted as directed on the manufacturer’s label before use.
  • Percent (%) of remaining shelf life This value is equal to:
    (Expiry date – Date on receipt at port of entry) × 100
    (Expiry date – Manufacturing date)
    Or:
    (Remaining shelf life on arrival) × 100
    (Shelf life of the product)
  • Port of entry name is the name of an authorised place of entry for drug consignments; this name must be filled in on the Port of Entry Consignment Inspection Form.
  • Pro Forma Invoice is presented to the TFDA for approval before a shipment can enter India . A properly endorsed Pro Forma Invoice has two signatures from TFDA officials and the TFDA stamp. The signatures and the stamp indicate that the exporter and consignee are both properly licensed and that the drug manufacturer, product, and dosage forms are in compliance with TFDA requirements. 
  • Quarantine is the retention of a consignment, not allowing its use until further tests are performed to ascertain its quality.
  • Sample Receipt Form is a document drug inspectors must complete for every sample of a batch of drug product collected.
  • Secondary container is a type of packaging that holds a number of immediate or primary containers.
    Splitting of a tablet describes the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet from the main body.
  • Surveillance Programme Document defines which pharmaceutical products are to be
    examined, collected, and tested.
  • Tablet types buccal
    hypodermic
    impregnated (including delayed-action, repeat-action,
    prolonged-action, and sustained-action tablets)
    ophthalmic
    oral
    pellet
    solution
    sublingual
    vaginal

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy – Test Info

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy - Test Info

Entrance Tests for B . Pharmacy & M. Pharmacy

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy – Test Info List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy – Test Info

Just like we take EAMCET to enter Engineering, students who are willing to go for B. Pharmacy courses will take various entrance examinations.  The entrance examinations include BHU B Pharma Entrance Exam, GPAT – Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test, MHT-CET Maharashtra Common Entrance Test etc.  The entrance tests vary from state to state and institute to institute.  Candidates depending on to which state they belong with take the entrance exam conducted by their respective states.  Candidates can work in various areas of discipline like chemist shops, drug control administration, educational institutes, food and drug administration, health centers, hospitals, medical dispensing store, pharmaceutical firms, research agencies, sales and marketing departments etc.

Entrance Tests for B Pharmacy

As the intermediate exams have completed recently and most of the state results are released, now most of the students must be getting ready to apply for the entrance examinations to study B. Pharmacy.  There will be definitely bright carrier who pursues B. Pharmacy.  It is one of the leading courses at this point in time, which is being studied by zillions of people all around the globe.  Students who are willing to do Pharmacy can apply to the Pharmacy entrance exams that will be soon notified.

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy – Test Info

Many want to study B.Pharmacy courses and M pharmacy education. so, here we provide list of entrance exams for B pharma and M pharma.

B pharmacy M Pharmacy Entrance Exams:

Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT)

Manpal Test

Andra pradesh post graduation test APPG_CET

Bihar Combined Entrance Competitive Examination (BCECE)

Rajasthan University of Health Sciences (RUHS-P)

Banaras Hindu University Entrance Test (BHUET) 

West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination (WBJEE-Pharmacy)

Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE-Pharmacy)
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University, Uttar Pradesh

Odisha Joint Entrance Examination – Pharmacy (OJEE-P)

Birla Institute of Science and Technology Admission Test (BITSAT)

Best Pharma colleges

Raj Kumar Goel Institute Of Technology (Pharmacy), Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh

Amrita School Of Pharmacy, Kochi, Kerela

Manipal College Of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Manipal, Karnataka

Institute Of Pharmacy, Nirma University, Ahmedabad, Gujarat

Birla Institute Of Technology, Ranchi, Jharkhand

Periyar College Of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Tiruchirappalli, Tamil Nadu

Mallige College Of Pharmacy, Bangalore, Karnataka

School Of Pharmacy, Solan, Himachal Pradesh

Maliba Pharmacy College, Tarsadi, Gujarat

University Institute Of Pharmacy, Raipur, Chhattisgarh,

MVP Samaj’s College Of Pharmacy, Nashik, Maharashtra

Jamia Hamdard, Delhi

Bombay College Of Pharmacy, Mumbai

N.E.T Pharmacy College, Raichur, Karnataka

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy - Test Info

N.G.S.M.Institute Of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Mangalore, Karnataka

University Institute Of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Chandigarh

Shri G.S. Institute Of Tech. & Science, Indore, Madhya Pradesh

 

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post – Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post - Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post

Online applications are invited from candidates for Drug Inspector by Food & Drug Administration department for given vacancies. Candidates after submitting their applications through On-Line shall send photocopies of their all academic/required documents regarding their claims along with print out of On-Line application form within 21 days from the last date of submitting the applications on the working day through registered/Speed Post or Personally in the office of the Commission. For this purpose the candidates are advised to download address slip from Commission’s website and to paste it on the envelope containing documents. In Absence of required relevant documents/records, the claims made by the candidates shall not be tenable and relevant documents/records received after due date in the office of the Commission will not be accepted.

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post - Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

Post: Drug Inspector – 91 posts

No. of posts of Drug Inspector Exam:

Unreserved: 38 posts

ST: 30 posts

SC: 11 posts

OBC: 12 posts

Education for Drug Inspector Exam:

A person who is appointed as inspector under the Act shall be a person who has Degree in pharmacy or Pharmaceuticals Sciences or Medicine with specialization in Clinical Pharmacology or Microbiology from a University established in India by law.

Nature of Post for Drug Inspector Exam :

Gazetted/Temporary and 2 years of probation period.

Essential Qualification for Drug Inspector Exam:

A candidate for direct recruitment to the post of Drugs Inspector must possess the following qualifications:- (i) Degree in Pharmacy or Pharmaceutical Sciences or Medicine with specialization in Clinical Pharmacology or Microbiology or equivalent from a recognized University;

(ii) (a) Eighteen Month’s Experience in the manufacture of at least one of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, Or (b) Eighteen Month’s Experience in testing of at least one of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, in a laboratory approved for this purpose by the licensing authority, or (c) Three year’s experience in the inspection of firms manufacturing any of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 during the tenure of their services as Drug Inspector of any State Government or Central Government.

Preferential Qualification- Other things being equal, such candidates shall be given preferences in the matter of direct recruitment- (1) Who has served in the territorial army for minimum period of two years. or (2) Who has obtained a “B” certificate of National cadet corps.

Exam Fee for Drug Inspector Exam:

UR: 450

OBC: 350

SC/ST/handicapped: 300

Age limit for Drug Inspector Exam:

Min 21 years and Max 30 years

Age limit will be flexible for resident of chhattisgarh as per notice from general administration department.

Candidates will be selected by merit through exam.

Any applications to improve any error will not accepted by online or offline medium. Exam results will be declared on basis of answers in OMR answer sheet. Exams results will be declared on basis of category, class, date of birth. No applications will be accepted for eroor improvement before or after exam results.

Age Limit- 21 to 40 years (upper age limit for reserved category candidates shall be relaxable as per rules).

Important directions for Drug Inspector Exam:

Candidates must ensure that they have all certificates of their claim about age, Essential Qualification, experience certificate issued by authorised officer, no objection certificate (If in Govt. service.) and prescribed certificate for reservation and U.P. Domicile certificate from father side for the woman candidates at the time of applying the application form.

Online Application Fee for Drug Inspector Exam:

In the ON-LINE Application process, after completing the procedure of first stage, category wise prescribed fee is to be deposited as per instructions provided in second stage. The prescribed fee for different categories is as under:-

Unreserved (General)   Exam fee ` 80/-+ On-line processing fee 25/-   

Total = 105/-

Other Backward Class Exam fee ` 80/-+ On-line processing fee 25/-    

Total = 105/-

Scheduled Caste-Exam fee ` 40/-  + On-line processing fee 25/-    

Total =  65/-

Scheduled Tribe  Exam fee40/-  + On-line processing fee25/-    

Total =65/-

Handicapped – Exam fee NIL  + On-line processing fee  25/- Total= 25/-

Rules for Drug Inspector Exam: Notification Syllabus PDF

  1. Following candidates are not eligible
  2. Male candidates who have more than one spouse alive and same way female candidates who have married to man whose first spouse is alive. In such matters government has rights to take decisions.
  3. Those who are not fit physically and mentally
  4. Those who married before minimum age for marriage
  5. Any candidates, who have two or more living child and out of which one born after 26 Jan 2001, are not eligible.
  1. It will be responsibility of candidates to check for all eligibility criterias. Means, Candidate should check out for all rules and eligibility before applying for posts. At any point of time during selection, if candidate found uneligible then candidature will be terminated.

Example Questions for DI examination: DRUG INSPECTOR EXAM

1. P wave of ECG is the result of

1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

2. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in

1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock

3. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea

4. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ?
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property

5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare

6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ?
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium

8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate

9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called

1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte

10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella

 

11. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ?
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine

Look out for PREVIOUS DRUG INSPECTOR EXAM QUESTION PAPERS here

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation - Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam: Looking for a pharmacology book? You must consult a good pharma book to have a good knowledge of different drugs and their best use. Here in this post i am going to list some of the best pharma books. Pharmacology involves the study of the actions of drugs and chemicals on cells, tissues and the whole body. It includes finding out how drugs produce beneficial and adverse affects, with the aim of improving the way drugs are tested and to give greater benefit in the treatment of disease. The cellular and chemical abnormalities of disease states are studied in the expectation that molecules may be designed specifically to correct the abnormality. The study of pharmacology requires understanding normal body functions (biochemistry and physiology) and the disturbances that occur (pathology). Pharmacology is the basis of much of the research and development of new drugs. The future of pharmacology is assured, as there remain many diseases for which neither cure nor palliation have been devised – for example, Alzheimer’s disease, neurogenerative diseases, many forms of cancer. Even when a cure or treatment is available, few medicines are perfect and the search for better drugs continues. In addition, other scientists such as  physiologists, biochemists and psychologists often find a knowledge of pharmacology useful as they use drugs to probe and define the biological systems they are studying

Here areTop 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology {Best books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam}

KDT
Rang & Dale
Lippincott wilium Ilustrated Review of Pharmacology
color atlas of Pharmacology

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation – Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Pharmacology books GPAT – KD Triphati

KD Triphati is the best book for Pharmacology and if a student has studied it thoroughly, then he doesn’t have to look for any other book for Pharmacology. All the questions asked in the GPAT are of the level of KD Tripathi.

Pharmacology books GPAT – Rang & Dale

Rang and Dale’s Pharmacology has delivered the core basic and clinical science information required by students and healthcare practitioners worldwide. Authors H. P. Rang, J. M. Ritter, R. J. Flower, and G. Henderson have ensured that the 8th Edition of this easy-to-read, comprehensive text continues the tradition of excellence.

Top 3 books for GPAT preparation - Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Pharmacology books GPAT – Lippincott

Lippincott pharmacology pdf is one of the best resource of pharmacology for pharmacy students. This book is read by majority of medical and pharma students and is also advised by ml
];dfteachers and doctors. Because this books helps a lot to make pharmacology easily understandable.

best books for GPAT preparation - Pharmacology Drug Inspector DI exam

Staff Selection Commission 2017 Exam Dates # SSC Calender 2017

Staff Selection Commission 2017 exam Dates:

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) which is the statutory body of Indian Government has been formed on 4th of November 1975 for conducting the written exams for various posts as well as it arranges the interviews for selecting the deserved candidates for the different posts of the various departments and ministries of government services. SSC has been completely engaged in the recruitments that are done for the Group C non-technical posts in various ministries as well as departments of Government of India in addition to their subordinate offices. It too conducts the exams for the defense posts. Every year, the SSC used to conduct huge number of the exams for various posts and lakhs of people from across the country used to write these exams to get selected for the respective posts.

Hey Pharma Buddies. Here are central government jobs which are really helpful for all the candidates who wants to pursue a career in Government sector. You can apply these posts according to the eligibility. Please note.

staff-selection-commission-2017-exam-dates-ssc-calender-2017-pharmacy

Recently for the year 2017-17, the SSC has announced the examination dates or schedule for those candidates looking for the SSC Calendar for the year 2017. Annually, Staff Selection Commission will be issuing various notifications in order to fill up various vacancies and in the same way, for this year the SSC has come up with the complete list of examinations that SSC is going to conduct this year and the schedule of it such as notification date, last date for willing up the application for the year 2017 which is as given below. So, check out the complete schedule that is given below and proceed to apply for the posts and write the exams accordingly to get selected for the posts you have applied for.

SSC Exams 2017-18 Schedule and Important Dates:

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has recently come up with the different posts exams schedule that which will take place in between January 2017 and January 2017. So, those who are waiting for these posts in this year can apply for the respective posts before the closing date looking at the official notifications according to the schedule clearly and get ready to prepare for the exam and crack the exam in order to get qualified in the exam and to get selected for the SSC post that you have applied for. The complete list of the SSC Examination dates that is released by the official authorities of the SSC is given below for the reference of the candidates who usually applies for the SSC Exams every year. So, have a look at the dates and proceed as per it.

SSC Exam Calendar 2017:

Exam Name Opening Date of Application Closing Date of Application Exam Date
Special Recruitment Drive for MTS Exam 2015 24-10-2015 23-11-2015 10th January 2017
Recruitment of SI in CAPFs, ASI in CISF and SI in Delhi Police for 2017 09-01-2916 05-02-2017 20th March 2017 for Paper-I and 05th June 2017 for Paper-II
Combined Graduate Level Exam in Tier 1 13-02-2017 14-03-2017 08th May 2017 and 22th May2017
Combined Graduate Level Tier 2 Exam NA NA 13th August 2017, and 14th of August 2017
Junior Hindi Translator in Subordinate Office Exam 02-04-2017 30-04-2017 19th June 2017
Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Exam 02-07-2017 01-08-2017 25th September 2017, 09th October 2017 and 16th October 2017
Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical and Electrical) Exam 2017 28-08-2017 16-09-2017 11th December 016
Stenographer Exam Grade C and D 2017 Exam 07-05-2017 03-06-2017 31st July 2017
MTS Non-Technical Staff Exam 2017 08-10-2017 7-11-2017 8th January 2017 and 22nd January 2017
Recruitment for Staffs in Cabinet Secretariat Updated Soon
Recruitment for constables (Exe) in Delhi Police Updated Soon

SSC Departmental Examination Dates 2017

  • For Clerks’ Grade, the exam will be organized by the SSC on 27th March 2017.
  • For Grade-C Steno. Ltd posts the exam will be held on 03rd July 2017.
  • For Upper Division Clerk Ltd posts the exam will be conducted on 27th November 2017 and
Departmental Exams
Clerks Grade (MTS only) Exam 2017 16-01-2017 12-02-2017 27th March 2017
Grade C Steno Let. Dept. Comp. Exam 2017 09-04-2017 06-05-2017 3rd July 2017
Upper Div. Clerk Ltd. Dept. Comp. Exam 2017 03-09-2017 30-09-2017 27th November 2017

These are the details of the various SSC notifications that would be released this year by the SSC for all those candidates who are looking for government posts. So, check out the complete schedules for various different posts both ministries and departmental posts and apply for the one that you are interested in and that you are eligible. For complete notifications for each post, you can refer the official notifications that will be given in the official website of the SSC from time to time.

This is according to the schedule of SSC 2016. The dates will be changed according to the Staff Selection Commission.