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Pharma QA Job Interview Guide |+| Quality Assurance Interview Questions – Pharmaceutical Industry

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Pharma QA Job Interview Guide Quality Assurance Interview Questions - Pharmaceutical Industry

Pharma QA Interview Question And Answer are here presented for you to help you to crack Quality Assurance Interview in Pharmaceutical manufacturing companies. Definition Of Quality Assurance along with its use In Pharma Industry are listed here below.

Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 1

Sample QA Interview Question:  Define quality assurance
Ans) QA is a broad range of concept contains all the matters that individually or collectively effect the quality of a product. QA mainly concentrated on planning and documenting the procedures to assure the quality of the product.

Sample QA Interview Question: What needs to be checked during inprocess QA checks?
A.
a.) Environmental Monitoring
b.) Measured values obtained from the process equipment (ex:temperature,RPM etc.)
c.) Measured values obtained from persons (ex:timmings,entries etc.)
d.) Process attributes (Ex:weight,hardness,friability etc.)

Sample QA Interview Question: What precautions shall be taken while collecting inprocess samples ?
A. While collecting inprocess samples, avoid contamination of the product being sampled (Don’t collect samples with bare hands) & avoid contamination of sample taken.

Sample QA Interview Question: In a tablet manufacturing facility ‘positive’ pressure is maintained in processing area or service corridors?
A. In tablet manufacturing facilities, pressure gradients are maintained to avoid cross contamination of products through air. Usually processing areas are maintained under positive pressure with respect to service corridors.

Sample QA Interview Question: If sticking observed during tablet compression what may the probable reason for the same?
A.
1.If the granules are not dried properly sticking can
occur.
2.Too little or improper lubrication can also leads to
sticking.
3.Sticking can occur because of too much binder or
hygroscopic granular.

Sample QA Interview Question: What checks shall be carried out, while calibrating DT apparatus?
A. While calibrating DT apparatus, following checks shall be performed.
1.) Number of strokes per minute (Limit:29-32 cycles/min)
2.) Temperature by probe & standard thermometer
(Limit: 37 ± 1 OC).
3). Distance travelled by basket (Limit:53 -57mm)

Explain the difference between QC and QA?

Ans) QA provides the confidence that a product will full fill the quality requirements. QC determines and measures the product quality level.

QA Interview Question: . Expand cGMP and what is the difference between GMP and cGMP?

Ans) cGMP known as Current Good Manufacturing Practices. It is a USFDA regulations to assure proper design , manufacturing and control of manufacturing processes and services.

GMP-Good Manufacturing Practices. These are the standard guidelines given by Food and Drug administration to make sure that a product is manufactured with safety and quality. c in cGMP means current. It refers to recent and advance updates to these standard guidelines. cGMP is up to date standard reference guidelines.

Pharma QA Job Interview Guide |+| Quality Assurance Interview Questions – Pharmaceutical Industry

Pharma QA Job Interview Guide Quality Assurance Interview Questions - Pharmaceutical Industry

Pharma QA Job Interview Q&A:  Tell me any five countries with their regulatory authorities?
Ans) India – Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)

USA – United States Food and Drug Administation (USFDA)

UK – Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)

Japan- Ministry of Health Labour and Welfare (MHLW)

Australia- Therapeutics Goods Administration (TGA)

Sample QA Interview Question: What is In process checks?
A. In process checks are checks performed during an activity,In order to monitor and,if necessary,to adjust the process to ensure that product confirms to its specification.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the difference between disintegration and dissolution?
A. Disintegration is a disaggregation process, in which an oral dosage form falls apart in to smaller aggregates.(Disintegration time is the ‘break up’ time of a solid dosage form).

Where as dissolution is a process by which solid substance enters in the solvent to yield a solution.It is controlled by the affinity between the solid substance and the solvent.

In other word disintegration is a subset of dissolution.

Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we calibrate a qualified equipment/instrument on definite intervals?
A. An equipment or instrument can ‘drift’ out of accuracy between the time of qualification and actual use.So it is recommended to calibrate and recalibrate the measuring devices and instruments on predetermined time intervals, to gain confidence on the accuracy of the data.

Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A: What is room temperature?

Ans) 25 degree centigrade

Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A:  What is the Ultraviolet(UV) and visible spectroscopy range?

Ans) UV spectroscopy range 200-400 nm, Visible spectroscopy range 400 nm to 800nm.

Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A: What is the use of UV Spectroscopy?

Ans) Spectroscopy used for detecting the functional groups, impurities. Qualitative and quantitative analysis can be done.

Pharma QA Job Interview Guide Part 2

Sample QA Interview Question:  What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative analysis?

Ans) Qualitative analysis involves identification of the compound or chemical based on their chemical(absorption, emission )or physical properties(e.g Melting point, boiling point).

Quantitative analysis involves estimation or determination of concentration or amount of the chemical compounds or components.

Q5) Explain the principle of Ultraviolet spectroscopy?

Ans) UV spectroscopy uses light in the UV part of electromagnetic spectrum. UV absorption spectra arises in which molecule or atoms outer electrons absorb energy, undergoes transition from lower energy level to higher energy level. For each molecule, absorbance at wavelength is specific.

Q6) Explain about Beer Lamberts law?

Ans) It states that the intensity of monochromatic light absorbed by a substance dissolved in a fully transmitting solvent is directly proportional to the substance concentration and the path length of the light through the solution.

Q7) Explain the Infrared spectroscopy principle?

Ans) When a molecule absorbs the Infrared radiation, it vibrates and gives rise to packed Infrared(IR) absorption spectrum. This IR spectrum is specific for every different molecule absorbing the IR radiation, useful for its identification.

Q8) What is the body temperature?

Ans) 37 oCelsius or 98.6 oF

v Define pH? What is the pH of blood?
Ans) pH -Negative logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration. Blood pH-7.35 to 7.45.

Q10) Expand LCMS, HPLC,UPLC, TLC and GC?

Ans) LCMS- Liquid Chromatography

HPLC- High Performance Liquid Chromatography,

UPLC- Ultra High Performance Liquid Chomatography,

TLC- Thin Layer Chomatography,

GC- Gas Chromatography.

qc pharma interview questions for freshers

Q11) What is the HPLC principle?

Ans) It is a technique used for separating the mixture of components into individual components based on adsorption, partition, ion exchange and size exclusion principles. Stationary phase and mobile phase used in it. HPLC used for identification, quantification and purification of components form a mixture.

Q12) Explain HPLC instrumentation?

Ans) It involves solvent system, pump, Sample injector, HPLC columns, Detectors and Recorder. Firstly, solvent(mobile phase) is degassed for eliminating the bubbles. It is passed through the pump with a uniform pressure. The liquid sample is injected into the mobile phase flow stream. It passes through the stationary phase identified by the detectors and recorded.

Q13) In reverse phase HPLC, which type of stationary phase is used and give example?

Ans) Non polar stationary phase used

Ex: Silica gel C-18

Q14) What are the detectors used in HPLC?

Ans) UV detector, IR detector, Fluorescence detector, Mass spectroscopy, LC MS etc.

Q15) How to calculate Retention factor in paper chromatography?
Ans) Rf = Distance travelled by solute/ Distance travelled by solvent.

Q16) Define molarity?

Ans) Number of moles of solute per litre solution. Denoted with “M”

Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 2

Q17) Define Molality?

Ans) Number of moles of solute per kilogram solvent. Denoted with “m”

Q18) Define Normality?

Ans) Number of Number of moles equivalent per litre solution.

 

Q19) Molecular weight of oxygen?

Ans) 16

Difference between humidity and relative humidity?

Ans) Humidity – Measure of amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere.

Relative humidity- Water vapour amount exists in air expressed as a percentage of the amount needed for saturation at the same temperature.

Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we consider three consecutive runs/batches for process validation? Why not two or four?
A. The number of batches produced in the validation exercise should be sufficient to allow the normal extent of variation and trends to be established and to provide sufficient data for evaluation and reproducibility.
· First batch quality is accidental (co-incidental),
· Second batch quality is regular (accidental),
· Third batch quality is validation(conformation).
In 2 batch we cannot assure the reproducibility of data,4 batches can be taken but the time and cost are involved.

Sample QA Interview Question: Explain about revalidation criteria of AHU system?
A. AHU system shall be revalidated periodically as mentioned in the regulatory standards. AHU shall be revalidated in following cases also.
· When basic design of AHU is changed,
· When clean room volume is changed,
· When new equipment is installed
· When a construction is carried out, that calls for reconstruction of AHU system.

Sample QA Interview Question: What needs to be checked during AHU validation?
A. During AHU validation, following tests shall be carried out
· Filter efficiency test,
· Air velocity & number of air changes,
· Air flow pattern (visualization)
· Differential pressure, temperature and RH
· Static condition area qualification
· Dynamic condition qualification
· Non-viable count
· Microbial monitoring
· Area recovery and power failure study.

Sample QA Interview Question: Position of oblong tablets to be placed in hardness tester to determine the hardness? Lengthwise / widthwise?
A. Position of oblong tablets should be length wise because the probability of breakage is more in this position.

Sample QA Interview Question: Explain in detail about qualification of pharmaceutical water system?
A. Qualification of pharmaceutical water system involves three phases
· Phase -1
· Phase -2
· Phase -3
Phase -1
A test period of 2-4 weeks should be spent for monitoring the system intensively. During this period the system should operate continuously without failure or performance deviation.Water cannot be used for pharmaceutical manufacturing in this phase.The following should be included in testing approach.
· Under take chemical & microbiological testing in accordance with a defined plan.
· Sample incoming feed water daily to verify its quality.
· Sample each step of purification process daily.
· Sample each point of use daily.
· Develop appropriate operating ranges.
· Demonstrate production and delivery of product water of required quantity and quality.
· Use and refine the SOP’s for operation,maintenance,sanitization and trouble shooting.
· Verify provisional alert and action levels.
· Develop and refine test failure procedure.

Phase -2
A further test period of 2-4 weeks. Sampling scheme will be same as Phase – 1.Water can be used for manufacturing process in this phase.
Approach should also
· Demonstrate consistent operation within established ranges.
· Demonstrate consistent production & delivery of water of required quality and quantity.

Phase – 3
Phase 3 runs for one year after satisfactory completion of phase-2.Water can be used for manufacturing process during this process.

Objectives & Features of Phase -3
· Demonstrate extensive reliable performance.
· Ensure that seasonal variations are evaluated.
· The sample locations, sampling frequencies and test should be reduced to the normal routine pattern based on established procedures proven during Phase -1 & phase – 2.

Sample QA Interview Question: What are the recommended environmental monitoring limits for microbial contamination?

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the difference between calibration and Validation?
A. Calibration is a demonstration that, a particular
Instrument or device produces results with in specified limits by comparisons with those produced by a reference or traceable standard over an appropriate range of measurements.

Where as Validation is a documented program that provides high degree of assurance that a specific process, method or system consistently produces a result meeting pre-determined acceptance criteria.

In calibration performance of an instrument or device is comparing against a reference standard. But in validation such reference standard is not using.

Calibration ensures that instrument or measuring devices producing accurate results. Whereas validation demonstrates that a process, equipment, method or system produces consistent results (in other words, it ensures that uniforms batches are produced).

Sample QA Interview Question: Briefly explain about ICH climatic zones for stability testing & long term storage conditions?
A.ICH STABILITY ZONES
Zone
Type of Climate
Zone I
Temperate zone
Zone II
Mediterranean/subtropical zone
Zone III
Hot dry zone
Zone IVa
Hot humid/tropical zone
Zone IVb
ASEAN testing conditions hot/higher humidity

Long term Storage condition
Climatic Zone
Temperature
Humidity
Minimum Duration
Zone I
21ºC ± 2ºC
45% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Zone II
25ºC ± 2ºC
60% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Zone III
30ºC ± 2ºC
35% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Zone IV
30ºC ± 2ºC
65% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Zone IVb
30ºC ± 2ºC
75% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Refrigerated
5ºC ± 3ºC
No Humidity
12 Months
Frozen
-15ºC ± 5ºC
No Humidity
12 Months

Sample QA Interview Question: What is bracketing & matrixing in stability testing?
A.Both Matrixing & Bracketing’s are reduced stability testing designs
Bracketing
The design of a stability schedule, such that only samples of extremes of certain design factors (ex:strength,package size) are tested at all time points as in full design.The designs assumes that the stability of any intermediate level is represented by the stability of extremes tested.
Matrixing
The design of a stability schedule, such that a selected subset of possible samples for all factor combinations is tested at a specified time point.At a subsequent time point another subset of samples for all factor combination is tested.The design assumes that the stability of each subset samples tested represents the stability of all samples at a given time point.
There for a given time point other than initial & final ones not every batch on stability needs to be tested.

Sample QA Interview Question:What are the common variables in the manufacturing of tablets?
A.
· Particle size of the drug substance
· Bulk density of drug substance/excipients
· Powder load in granulator
· Amount & concentration of binder
· Mixer speed & mixing timings
· Granulation moisture content
· Milling conditions
· Lubricant blending times
· Tablet hardness
· Coating solution spray rate

Sample QA Interview Question: Whether bracketing & validation concept can be applied in process validation?
A.Both Matrixing & Bracketing’s can be applied in validation studies.
Matrixing
Different strength of same product
Different size of same equipment
Bracketting – Evaluating extremes
Largest and smallest fill volumes
Fastest and slowest operating speeds

1. What is an SOP ?

A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) is a certain type of document that describes in a step-by-step outline form how to perform a particular task or operation. Everyone in a company must follow the same procedures to assure that tasks are performed consistently and correctly. Most companies have a wide variety of SOPs that describe how to do different tasks. In many companies technicians and operators are trained in how to follow individual SOPs and their training record specifies which SOPs they are trained on and are authorized to use.

2. What is 21 CFR part 11 ?

Title 21 CFR Part 11 of the Code of Federal Regulations deals with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) guidelines on electronic records and electronic signatures in the United States. Part 11, as it is commonly called, defines the criteria under which electronic records and electronic signatures are considered to be trustworthy, reliable and equivalent to paper records

 What are user requirements ?

User Requirements Specification describes what users require from the System. User requirement specifications are written early in the validation process, typically before the system is created. It is written by the System Owner and End Users, with input from Quality Assurance. Requirements outlined in the URS are usually tested in the Performance Qualification. User Requirements Specifications are not intended to be a technical document; readers with only a general knowledge of the system should be able to understand the requirements outlined in the URS.

4. What is a validation plan ?

Validation Plans define the scope and goals of a validation project. Validation plans are written before a validation project and are specific to a single validation project. Validation Plans can include:

Deliverables (Documents) to be generated during the validation process
Resources/Departments/Personnel to participate in the validation project
Time-Line for completing the validation project

5. What is an IQ document ?

Installation Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify the proper installation of a System. The requirement to properly install the system was defined in the Design Specification. Installation Qualifications must be performed before completing Operational Qualification or Performance Qualification.

6. What is an OQ Document ?

Operational Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify the proper functioning of a System. The operational qualification tests requirements defined in the Functional Requirements. Operational Qualifications are usually performed before the system is released for use.

7. What is a PQ Document ?

Performance Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify that a System performs as expected under simulated real-world conditions. The performance qualification tests requirements that were defined in the User Requirement Specification (or possibly the Functional Requirements). Due to the nature of performance qualifications, these tests are sometime conducted with power users as the system is being released.

8. What is a Validation Summary Report ?

Validation Summary Reports provide an overview of the entire validation project. When regulatory auditors review validation projects, they typically begin by reviewing the summary report. The validation summary report should include:

A description of the validation project
All test cases performed, including if those test cases passed without issue
All deviations reported, including how those deviations were resolved

9. What is a Change Request ?

Change Control is a general term describing the process of managing how changes are introduced into a controlled System. In validation, this means how changes are made to the validated system. Change control is required to demonstrate to regulatory authorities that validated systems remain under control after system changes. Change Control systems are a favorite target of regulatory auditors because they vividly demonstrate an organization capacity to control its systems.

Sample QA Interview Question: Why water for pharmaceutical use is always kept in close loop in continuous circulation ?
A. Water is a best medium for many microorganisms, microorganism can be a highly pathogenic which causes serious diseases(many diseases are water born), these pathogens infect after consumption of contaminated water, microorganisms tend to settle on a surface if water is allowed to stand in a stagnant position for few hours, these settled microorganism form a film over the surface of vessel and piping, such film formed by microorganisms is also called as biofilm, biofilms are very difficult of remove, once a biofilm is formed at a particular point then that point may form a biofilm again even after cleaning very easily as seed from this point is may not completely get removed effectively.

Biofilms then can become a source of microbial contaminations; therefore purified water after collection in a distribution system is always kept in a closed loop in a continuous circulation.
A continuous circulation is also not enough at some points, therefore it is aided with high temperature range from 65 °C to 80°C, a minimum temperature of 65 °C is considered a self sanitizing, but better assurance is obtained with a temperature of 80°C .

Purified water collected should be stored in a stainless still vessel which must facilitate distribution to the point of use in a closed loop of continuous circulation, tank should be made of corrosion free material of construction, and must facilitate sanitization and easy cleaning.

Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 3

Sample QA Interview Question: Water for pharmaceutical use shall be free cations,anions and other impurities why ?

A.Water for pharmaceutical must be free from inorganic as well as organic impurities, minerals, and heavy metals. Some impurities like calcium, magnesium, ferrous are responsible for degradation of drug molecule, many cations like ferrous and calcium magnesium act as catalysts in degradation reaction of drug molecule, anions like chloride are highly active they participate in nucliophylic substitution reactions, where in they break a double bond between -C=C- in to a single bond as CL –CH-CH2- , which a reason why we observe that color dies tend to fed in presence of chlorine as most of the dies used are diazo compounds which has plenty of places for nucliophylic substitution reactions, which is also a reason why stability of drug is drastically affected in presence of cations and anions from mineral origin present in water.

Sample QA Interview Question: Water for pharmaceutical use shall be free heavy metals why ?
A. Heavy metals like lead and arsenic are highly cumulative neurotoxic metals, heavy metals are not eliminated out of our body easily like other drugs and molecules but heavy metals bind with proteins and tend to get accumulated in fatty tissues, nerve tissue is most likely to get damaged by heavy metals, heavy metal causes nervous tissue damage there for water must be free from heavy metals.

Sample QA Interview Question: Brazil falls under which climatic zone ?
A. Zone IVB (30 degree celsius and 75% relative humidity)

Sample QA Interview Question: Change in the size or shape of the original container requires any stability study?
A. Change in the size or shape of the original container may not necessitate the initiation of new stability study.

Sample QA Interview Question: Forced degradation(stress testing) and accelerated stability testing are same?
A. Forced degradation and stress testing are not same. Stress testing is likely to be carried out on a single batch of the drug substance. The testing should include the effect of temperatures (in 10°C increments (e.g., 50°C, 60°C) above that for accelerated testing), humidity (e.g., 75 percent relative humidity or greater) where appropriate, oxidation, and photolysis on the drug substance. The testing should also evaluate the susceptibility of the drug substance to hydrolysis across a wide range of pH values when in solution or suspension. Photo stability testing should be an integral part of stress testing.

Sample QA Interview Question: According to WHO guidelines what is the storage condition of climatic zone IVa and zone IVb?
A. Zone IV a: 30°C and 65% RH (hot and humid countries)
Zone IV b: 30°C and 75% RH (hot and very humid countries

Sample QA Interview Question: Countries comes under climatic zone IVb?
A.Brazil,Cuba,China,Brunei,Cambodia,Indonesia,Malaysia,Myanmar,Philippines,Singapore,Thailand

 

Pharmaceutical Industry Interview Questions pdf

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the purpose of stress testing in stability studies?
A. Stress testing of the drug substance can help identify the likely degradation products, which can in turn help establish the degradation pathways and the intrinsic stability of the molecule and validate the stability indicating power of the analytical procedures used. The nature of the stress testing will depend on the individual drug substance and the type of drug product involved.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the formula for calculating number of air changes in an area?
A. Number of air changes/hour in an area is

= Total Room Airflow In CFM x 60
Total Volume of room in cubic feet
For calculating Total Room Airflow in CFM, first calculate air flow of individual filter. Formula is given below.

Air flow (in cfm) = Avg.air velocity in feet/Minute x Effective area of filter

Then find Total air flow. Formula is
Total Air flow = Sum of air flow of individual filter.

Air flow Velocity can be measured with the help of Anemometer.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is dead leg?
A. A dead leg is defined as an area in a piping system where liquid can become stagnant and not be exchanged during flushing.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended bio burden limits of purified water & WFI?
A. Purified water has a recommended bioburden limit of 100 CFU/mL, and water for injection (WFI) has a recommended bio burden limit of 10 CFU/100 mL.
Sample QA Interview Question: Brief about ICH stabilty guidelines?
A. Q1A- Stability testing of new drug substance & products
Q1B- Photo stability testing of new drug substances & products
Q1C-Stability testing of new dosage forms
Q1D-Bracketing & Matrixing designs for testing of new drug substances and products
Q1E-Evaluation of stability data
Q1F-Stability data package for registration applications in climatic zone III & IV (Withdrawed)

Sample QA Interview Question: What is significant changes in stability testing?
A.
1. A 5% change in assay for initial value.

2. Any degradation products exceeds its acceptance
criterion.

3. Failure to meet acceptance criterion for
appearance,physical artributes and functionality
test.

4. Failure to meet acceptance criteria for dissolution
for 12 units.

Sample QA Interview Question: If leak test fail during in process checks what needs to be done ?
A.
Immediately stop packing process and check for
1.Sealing temperature
2.Verify for any possible changes like foil width,knurling etc.
3.Check & quarantine the isolated quantity of packed goods from last passed inprocess.
4.Collect random samples & do retest.
5.Blisters from the leak test passed containers shall allow to go further and rest must be deblistered/defoiled accordingly.

Sample QA Interview Question: How many Tablets shall be taken for checking friability?
A. For tablets with unit mass equal or less than 650 mg, take sample of whole tablets corresponding to 6.5g.For tablets with unit mass more than 650mg,take a sample of 10 whole tablets.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the formula for calculating weight loss during friability test?
A. %Weight loss = Initial Weight – Final Weight X 100
Initial Weight

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the pass or fail criteria for friability test?
A. Generally the test is run for once.If any cracked,cleaved or broken tablets present in the tablet sample after tumbling,the tablets fails the test.If the results are doubtful,or weight loss is grater than the targeted value,the test should be repeated twice and the mean of the three tests determined.A mean weight loss from the three samples of not more than 1.0% is considered acceptable for most of the products.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the standard number of rotations used for friability test?
A. 100 rotations

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the fall height of the tablets in the friabilator during friability testing?
A. 6 inches.Tablets falls from 6 inches eight in each turn within the apparatus.

Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we check hardness during inprocess checks?
A. To determine need for the pressure adjustments on the tableting machine. Hardness can affect the disintegration time.If tablet is too hard, it may not disintegrate in the required period of time. And if tablet is too soft it will not withstand handling and subsequent processing such as coating,packing etc.

Sample QA Interview Question: What are the factors which influence tablet hardness?
A.
1.compression force
2.Binder quantity(More binder more hardness)
3.Moisture content

Sample QA Interview Question: Which type of tablets are exempted from Disintegration testing?
A. Chewable Tablets

Sample QA Interview Question: Which capsule is bigger in size – size ‘0’ or size ‘1’?
A. ‘0’ size

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended temperature for checking DT of a dispersible tablet?
A. 25 ±10C (IP) & 15 – 250C (BP)

Sample QA Interview Question: What is mesh aperture of DT apparatus ?
A. 1.8 -2.2mm (#10)

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the pass/fail criteria for disintegration test?

A. If one or two tablets/capsules fails to disintegrate completely, repeat the test on another 12 additional dosage units. The requirement is meet if not fewer than 16 out of 18 tablets/capsules tested are disintegrated completely.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended storage conditions for empty hard gelatin capsules?
A. 15 – 250C & 35 -55% RH

Sample QA Interview Question: Which method is employed for checking “Uniformity of dosage unit”?
A.
A.)Content uniformity
B.) Weight Variation
Weight variation is applicable for following dosage forms;Hard gelatin capsules,uncoated or film coated tablets,containing 25mg or more of a drug substance comprising 25% or more by weight of dosage unit.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended upward and downward movement frequency of a basket-rack assembly in a DT apparatus?
A. 28 – 32 cycles per minute.

Sample QA Interview Question: When performing the ‘uniformity of weight’ of the dosage unit, how many tablet/capsule can deviate the established limit?
A. Not more than two of the individual weights can deviates from the average weight by more than the percentage given in the pharmacopeia,and none can deviates more than twice that percentage.
Weight Variation limits for Tablets

IP/BP
Limit
USP
80 mg or less
10%
130mg or less
More than 80mg or Less than 250mg
7.5%
130mg to 324mg
250mg or more
5%
More than 324mg

Weight Variation limits for Capsules
IP
Limit
Less than 300mg
10%
300mg or More
7.5%

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GPAT Exam 2019

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Question & Answers – DI Exam Practice Paper

by
DRUG INSPECTOR PRACTICE QUESTION & ANSWERS – DI EXAM PRACTICE PAPER

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Question & Answers – DI Exam Practice Paper is here for you to check out how well is your preparation going on. This is the smart way to learn.

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Questions

1. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease

17. The Latin term for ointment is
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem

18. The Latin term for “When required” is
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim

19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline

20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is

1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation

21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos

22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium

23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension

24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse

25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin

26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia

27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil

28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ?
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen

29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent

30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis

42. The word posology is derived from Greek word “posos” which means
1. “How much” 2. Quantity
3. Amount 4. How long
You are looking for the Drug Inspector Exam Question Paper, i am giving here:

Of the following, who is elected 5.
unopposed in the recent election to
Rajya Sabha
(1) Mayawati
(2) Vilasa Rao Deshmukh
– (3) Rajiv Shukla
( 4) All the above

1. Senna is
1. Irritant laxative 2. Osmotic laxative
3. Bulk laxative 4. Emollient laxative

2. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare

6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ?
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Paper 2018

8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate

9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called

1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte

10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella

11. P wave of ECG is the result of

1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in

1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock

13. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea

14. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ?
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property

15. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ?
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine

16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease

17. The Latin term for ointment is
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem

18. The Latin term for “When required” is
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim

19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline

20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is

1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation

21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos

22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium

23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension

24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse

25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin

26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia

27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil

28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ?
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen

29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent

30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis

31. In the extemporaneous preparation of eye drops the final clarification done by passing
through

1. Sintered glass filters
2. Gooch crucible
3. Whatman filter paper
4. Micro-porous plastic membrane

32. One of the advantages of IR heat sterilization of syringes is
1. Determination of internal temperature to assess the efficiency of sterilization is simple
2. More efficient than autoclaving
3. Unaffected by thermal resistance by static surface air films
4. Fast sterilization

33. International Pharmacopoeia is published by
1. WHO
2. International Pharmaceutical Federation
3. United Nations
4. US food and drug administration

34. In the case of sterilization by dry heat the microbes are killed by
1. Oxidation 2. Dehydration
3. Decomposition 4. Precipitation

35. Communicable disease caused by Rickettsiae is
1. Scrub typhus 2. Chancroid
3. Mumps 4. Influenza

36. One of the first aid in poisoning is by administering
1. Universal antidote
2. Table spoonful of mustered
3. Egg white
4. All the above

37. In hemolytic jaundice the following are true EXCEPT
1. Unconjugated bilirubin level increases
2. Anemia is common
3. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases
4. Liver function test normal

38. The mechanism of action of penicillin is
1. By inhibition of protein synthesis
2. By interference with ribosome function
3. By antimetabolite action
4. By interference with cell wall synthesis

39. Cotrimoxazole is more effective than individual administration of sulphame-thoxazole or
trimethoprim since
1. Both set sequentially in nucleotide synthesis
2. Sulphamethoxazole is antimetabolite and trimethoprin interfere with cell wall synthesis
3. Both binds to enzyme required for DNA replication
4. Sulphamethoxazole interfere with folic acid synthesis and trimethoprin interfere with cell
wall synthesis

40. Which of the following is fluoroquinolone derivative ?
1. Nitrofurantoin 2. Lomifloxacin
3. Prontocil 4. Penicillin

Who is the winner of the prestigious
ABEL PRIZE of the Norwegian
Academy of Sciences and Letters for
2012?
(1) Endre Szemeredi
(2) Paul Erdos
(3) M. Gelfand
( 4) Niel Henrik

3 percent of votes polled?
(1) RLD
(2) BSP
(3) Congress
(4) BJP

GS/500
20th New Delhi World Book Fair was in
augurated by
(1) Kapil Sibal
(2) Manmohan Singh
(3) Karan Singh
(4) Pratibha Patil

Some questions are given below :
1. All of the following ate psychotropic substances, except:
1. Amobarbital 2. Meprobamate
3. Barbital 4. All of the above

2. As per schedule P of Drugs and Cosmetics
Act, the Diphtheria toxoid has expiry period
of :
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 2 years 4. 5 years

3. Chloramphenicol comes under schedule :
1. G 2. H
3. W 4. P

4. Example of Narcotic drug is :
1. Coca 2. Opium
3. Charas 4. Doxapram

5. Ergot and its preparation belongs to schedule :
1. P 2. Q
3. C1 4. L

6. Schedule X drug is :
1. Amphetamine 2. Cyclobarbital
3. Glutethimide 4. All of the above

7. Drug Inspector is appointed under section :
1. 19 2. 42
3. 21 4. 30

8. Schedule M and Y were introduced in Drugs
and Cosmetics Act in :
1. 1976 2. 1982
3. 1988 4. 1980

9. Example of Schedule G drug is :
1. Tetracycline 2. Ampicillin
3. Ibuprofen 4. Tolbutamide

10. Example of Schedule X drug is :
1. Diazepam 2. Emetine
3. Quinidine 4. Ciprofloxacin

11. Opium has been under legislative control
since :
1. 1820 2. 1857
3. 1925 4. 1949

12. Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in schedule :
1. S 2 R
3. Q 4. T

13. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act has been divided
into …… parts
1. 15 2. 16
3. 18 4. 24

14. The Central Drugs Laboratory is established
in :
1. Calcutta 2. Lucknow
3. Mumbai 4. Kasauli

15. The members of the D.T.A.B. hold the office
for :
1. 1 year 2. 3 years
3. 5 years 4. 7 years

1. Senna is
1. Irritant laxative 2. Osmotic laxative
3. Bulk laxative 4. Emollient laxative

2. Long term use of cemetidine may cause 2
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis 2
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria
4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is 4
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above
5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means 3
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare
6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ? 1
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient
7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by 1
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium
8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is 3
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate
9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called
1
1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte
10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify 1
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella
11. P wave of ECG is the result of
1
1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization
12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in
2
1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock
13. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of 3
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea
14. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ? 2
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property
15. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ? 4
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine
16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called 1
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease
17. The Latin term for ointment is 1
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem
18. The Latin term for “When required” is 1
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim
19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline
20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is
2
1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation
21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by 1
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos
22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by 4
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium
23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following 1
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension
24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse
25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are 1
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin
26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces 3
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia
27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ? 3
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil
28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ? 1
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen
29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent
30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is 1
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis
31. In the extemporaneous preparation of eye drops the final clarification done by passing
through
1
1. Sintered glass filters
2. Gooch crucible
3. Whatman filter paper
4. Micro-porous plastic membrane
32. One of the advantages of IR heat sterilization of syringes is 3
1. Determination of internal temperature to assess the efficiency of sterilization is simple
2. More efficient than autoclaving
3. Unaffected by thermal resistance by static surface air films
4. Fast sterilization
33. International Pharmacopoeia is published by 1
1. WHO
2. International Pharmaceutical Federation
3. United Nations
4. US food and drug administration
34. In the case of sterilization by dry heat the microbes are killed by 2
1. Oxidation 2. Dehydration
3. Decomposition 4. Precipitation
35. Communicable disease caused by Rickettsiae is 4
1. Scrub typhus 2. Chancroid
3. Mumps 4. Influenza
36. One of the first aid in poisoning is by administering 1
1. Universal antidote
2. Table spoonful of mustered
3. Egg white
4. All the above
37. In hemolytic jaundice the following are true EXCEPT 4
1. Unconjugated bilirubin level increases
2. Anemia is common
3. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases
4. Liver function test normal
38. The mechanism of action of penicillin is 1
1. By inhibition of protein synthesis
2. By interference with ribosome function
3. By antimetabolite action
4. By interference with cell wall synthesis
39. Cotrimoxazole is more effective than individual administration of sulphame-thoxazole or
trimethoprim since 2
1. Both set sequentially in nucleotide synthesis
2. Sulphamethoxazole is antimetabolite and trimethoprin interfere with cell wall synthesis
3. Both binds to enzyme required for DNA replication
4. Sulphamethoxazole interfere with folic acid synthesis and trimethoprin interfere with cell
wall synthesis
40. Which of the following is fluoroquinolone derivative ? 2
1. Nitrofurantoin 2. Lomifloxacin
3. Prontocil 4. Penicillin G
41. Number of mole of ATPs produced when on mole of glucose is completely oxidized is
1. 38 2. 8 1
3. 6 4. 24
42. The word posology is derived from Greek word “posos” which means 1
1. “How much” 2. Quantity
3. Amount 4. How long
43. The dose for children can be calculated on the basis of body weight by 1
1. Young’s rule or Dilling’s rule
2. Young’s rule or Catzel rule
3. Dilling’s rule or Catzel rule
4. Catzel rule or Young’s rule
44. The metabolic fate of pyruate in the anaerobic condition is formation of
1. ATP 2. Acetyl Co-A 3
3. Lactate 4. Citric Acid
45. The samples taken from drug store by Drug Inspector for analysis shall be divided into
1. 3 2. 4 2
3. 5 4. 2
46. More scientific way of calculating paediatric dose is based on 1
1. Age 2. Body weight
3. Body surface area 4. Body height
47. The dose for a twelve year old child in terms of adult dose is 1
1. 20% 2. 12%
3. 75% 4. 50%
48. In hospitals Infra Red Radiation heat sterilization in high vacuum can be used for
sterilization of 4
1. Extemporaneous ophthalmic preparation
2. Extemporaneous ophthalmic Large Volume parenterals
3. Large instruments used in Operation Theatre
4. Rubber Cloves
49. The small knots in cotton fibre caused by uneven growth or formed during processing is
called 1
1. Neps 2. Staple
3. Card 4. Scales
50. Adsorbent cotton wool is used for 3
1. Absorbing wound exudate
2. Retaining dressing in toes
3. Skin grafting
4. Protecting Dressing
51. Which of the following is ex-officio member of Drug Technical advisory Board ? 4
1. President of Indian Medical Association
2. President of Indian Pharmaceutical Association
3. President of Indian Council of Medical Research
4. President of Medical Council of India
52. Number of schedules to Drugs and cosmetics act 1940 is 4
1. 12 2. 2
3. 40 4. 32

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Papers

53. The dressing used for burn injury is
1. Rayon 2. Cellulose wading
3. Capsicum cotton wool 4. Paraffin gauze dressing
54. In the case of sterilization by moist heat the microbes are killed by 1
1. Oxidation 2. Reduction
3. Decomposition 4. Coagulation of protein
55. Saturated steam is better heating agent than air for sterilization because it has 1
1. High latent heat
2. High pressure
3. High sensible heat
4. Low coefficient of expansion
56. Which schedule to Drugs and Cosmetics Rule provides the list of disease which a drug
may not purport to prevent or cure or make claims to prevent or cure ? 2
1. Schedule C 2. Schedule J
3. Schedule M 4. Schedule Y
57. Every record, register, or other documents seized by Drug Inspector under clause cc or cca
of Section 22 of drugs and cosmetics act 1940 shall be returned to the person within
1. 10 days 2. 20 days
3. 25 days 4. 30 days
58. Valuable test for confirmation that the steam has displaced all the air from a porous
load in a high vacuum autoclave is 3
1. Bowie – Dick Test 2. Klintex Paper Test
3. Browne’s Tube Test 4. Hour Glass Test
59. The label of package containing the drugs coming under the purview of Narcotic Drugs
and Psychotropic Substance act 1985 should 4
1. Have the symbol NRx in Red in the left top corner
2. Have warming: “Poison”
4. Have caution : it is dangerous to take the medicine except under supervision of
Registered Medical Practitioner
4. All the above
60. First step in glycolysis is 2
1. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
2. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
3. Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyrite
4. Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6 diphosphate
61. Chemical incompatibility is caused due to any of the following EXCEPT : 2
1. pH change 2. Double decomposition
3. Complex formation 4. Dissociation
62. What is the preferred pH to dispense a weakly acidic drug with pKa of 7.5 as solution ? 1
1. Less than 5 2. Less than 3
3. 7.5 4. 9
63. Oxytetracycline is produced by 1
1. Streptomyces rimous
2. Streptomyces grises
3. Streptomyces Venezuela
4. Streptomyces garyphalous
64. The precursor used in the manufacture of benzyl penicillin is 2
1. Phenyl acetic acid
2. 6-aminopenicillonic acid
3. Phenoxy acetic acid
4. 2-6, dimethoxyphenylacetic acid
65. Fainting is due to pooling of blood in lower extremities in the following 2
1. Collar syncope 2. Orthostatic syncope
3. Carotid sinus syncope 4. Vaso-vagal syncope
66. Lipase is not present in one of the following secretion 2
1. Saliva 2. Gastric juice
3. Pancreatic juice 4. Intestinal juice
67. Which of the following ins the selective COX – 2 inhibitor ? 4
1. Nimesulide 2. Mefenamic acid
3. Naproxene 4. Diclofenac
68. Which of the following NSAID is para aminophenol derivative ? 2
1. Indomethacin 2. Diclofenac
3. Paracetamol 4. Ketoprofen
69. Conversion of glycogen to glucose is known as 3
1. Glycogenesis 2. Glycolysis
3. Glycogenolysis 4. Gluconeogenesis
70. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate or lactate is called 1
1. Embden-Mayerhof pathway
2. Pentose phosphate pathway
3. Uronic acid pathway
4. Glycerophosphate shuttle
71. Opthalmic preparation may contain the medicaments as a suspension provided the
size of the 90% of the particle is less than 2
1. 1 micron 2. 5 micron
3. 7 micron 4. 10 micron

DRUG INSPECTOR Exam Practice Paper

72. The most important property of ophthalmic preparation which causes pain and irritation
is 1
1. Hypertonic solution 2. Acidic pH
3. High viscosity 4. Hypotonic solution
73. Dispensing of alkaline bicarbonate and soluble magnesium salt together will produce 4
1. Double decomposition
2. Complexation
3. Therapeutic incompatibility
4. Physical incompatibility
74. Current Pharmacopoeia of India was published in 4
1. 1955 2. 1966
3. 1986 4. 1996
75. Which of the following is NOT sexually transmitted disease ? 4
1. Gonorrhoea 2. Chancroid
3. Granuloma inguinale 4. Kala azar
76. Malaria is caused by 2
1. Protozoa 2. Bacteria
3. Fungi 4. Virus
77. Intrinsic factor is secreted by 2
1. S cells 2. K cells
3. Parietal cells 4. Duodenal mucosa
78. Pepsinogen is activated by 2
1. Enterokinase 2. HCl
3. Trypsin 4. Cl–
79. Which of the following is long acting barbiturate ? 4
1. Amylobarbitone 2. Secobarbitone
3. Thiopentone 4. Phenobarbitone
80. Which of the following is opioid antagonist ? 3
1. Buprenorphine 2. Meptazinol
3. Nalorphine 4. Nalbuphine
81. Choose the correct statement : 3
1. Buffering capacity of eye drops should be low
2. Buffering capacity of eye drops should be high
3. Eye drops should be buffered at the pH of lachrymal secretion
4. Buffer should not be used in eye drops
82. British standard tests for ophthalmic containers include all the following tests EXCEPT 1
1. Resistance for autoclaving
2. Light resistance
3. Closure efficiency
4. Gas permeability
83. Pharmacopoeia gives all the following information EXCEPT 4
1. Dose 2. Solubility
3. Therapeutic category 4. Manufacturing method
84. Pharmacopoeia is a book 4
1. Describing preparation of formulations
2. Describing dispensing techniques
3. Of standards published by respective government agency
4. All the above
85. Filariasis is caused by 1
1. Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Strongyloides stercoralis
3. Dracunculus medinensis
4. Schistosoma mansonia
86. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission of AIDS ? 3
1. Sexual contact
2. Transfusion of infected blood
3. Contact with infected towels and clothing
4. From infected mother to foetus
87. Oxyntic cells secrete one of the following : 2
1. Pepsinogen 2. HCl
3. Bicarbonate 4. Gastrin
88. Mass peristalsis is seen in 2
1. Small intestine 2. Stomach
3. Large intestine 4. Esophagus
89. Who is known as father of modern chemo-therapy ? 1
1. Paul Ehrlich 2. Louis Pasteur
3. Alexander Fleming 4. Domagle
90. The effect of sulpha drug is antagonized by 1
1. PABA 2. Folic acid
3. Sulphanilic acid 4. Thiamin
91. Hardening is one of the steps in the preparation of catguts. It is done by soaking the ribbon
obtained from the intestine in
1. Potassium Permanganate solution
2. Potassium sulphate solution
3. Chromium salt solution
4. Vanadium sulphate solution
92. Material used in the non-absorbable suture is 1
1. Silk 2. Linen
3. Metals and alloys 4. All the above
93. Children from slum area develop immunity to a variety of disease more quickly than those
children from affluent area due to 2
1. Frequent clinical infection
2. Frequent subclinical infection
3. Inadequate artificial immunization schedule
4. Acquired passive immunization
94. New born babies show high resistance to Chicken pox due to 1
1. Naturally acquired active immunization
2. Artificially stimulated active immunization
3. Naturally stimulated passive immunization
4. Artificially stimulated passive immunization
95. The following is a major relay station for sensory impulses 4
1. Medulla 2. Pons
3. Cerebellum 4. Thalamus
96. Feeding is regulated by centers in the 3
1. Cerebral cortex 2. Thalamus
3. Hypothalamus 4. Cerebellum
97. Which of the following antacid has laxative action also ? 1
1. Aluminium hydroxide 2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Calcium Carbonate 4. Sodium bicarbonate
98. Omeprazole is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer since it 4
1. Increases the secretion of mucus
2. Is H2
receptor antagonist
3. Is H1
receptor antagonist
4. Is proton pump inhibitor
99. WHO recommended drug regime for the treatment of tuberculoid leprosy is
1. Dapsone 100 mg/day + Rifampicin 600 mg/month (supervised) for 6 months
2. Dapsone 100 mg/day + Clofazimine 50 mg/month (unsupervised) for 12 months
3. Rifampicin 600 mg/month + Clofazimine 300 mg/month (unsupervised) for 12 months
4. Rifampicin 600 mg/month (supervised) + Clofazimine 300 mg/month (unsupervised) for 3
months
100. Which of the following disease is caused by parasitic protozoa ? 1
1. Leishmaniasis 2. Leprosy
3. Syphilis 4. Plague
101. How much theobroma oil is required to prepare ten suppositories containing 300 mg of
bismuth subgallate using one gram suppository mould ? (Displacement value of bismuth
subgallate is 6)
1. 9.5 g 2. 0.5 g
3. 9.5 ml 4. 0.5 ml
102. Turbidity is often produced initially when
alcohol is mixed with water which disappears subsequently. It is due to 3
1. The formation of temporary emulsion
2. Less solubility of alcohol in water
3. The precipitation of impurities
4. Liberation of air dissolved in water
103. Maximum volume blood collected at one attendance from a donor is 2
1. 420 ml 2. 250 ml
3. 100 ml 4. 940 ml
104. The blood from human volunteer is collected
from 2
1. Median cubital vein 2. Jugular vein
3. Pulmonary vein 4. Any of the above
105. The toxins are converted to toxoid by treating with 1
1. Formaldehyde
2. Autoclaving
3. By heating to 80o Celsius
4. All the above
106. Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated living bacteria ? 1
1. BCG 2. Tetanus
3. Poliomyelitis 4. Diphtheria
107. Acetylcholine is not the neurotransmitter in
the following fibers 1
1. Pre-ganglionic parasympathetics fibers
2. Post-ganglionic parasympathetics fibers
3. Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers
4. Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers of sweet glands
108. Lumbar puncture is performed for the
following reasons EXCEPT 2
1. To produce spinal anesthesia
2. To relieve intracranial pressure
3. To introduce drugs into CNS
4. To record the electrical activities of spinal cord
109. Which of the following is anti-emetic ? 2
1. Domperidone 2. Apomorphine
3. Mustard 4. Ipecacuanha
110. Which of the following is irritant purgative ? 3
1. Magnesium sulphate
2. Dioctyl sodium sulphosuccinate
3. Liquid paraffin
4. Castor oil
111. Amodiaquine is active against which phase of the life cycle of malarial parasite ? 3
1. Hepatic phase 2. Asexual parasites
3. Latent tissue phase 4. Gametocytes in mosquito
112. Drug acting against only extra intestinal amoebiasis is 2
1. Quinidochlor 2. Dilaxanide furoate
3. Tetracycline 4. Chloroquine
113. How much 95% alcohol is required to prepare 1000 ml of 60% alcohol ?
1. 631.5 2. 621.6
3. 658.33 4. 641.6
114. A prescription is an order, to supply medicine, from 4
1. Doctor 2. Dentist
3. Veterinary surgeon 4. All the above
115. Blood collected from donor is stored in sealed containers at ? 3
1. –20o Celsius 2. –80o Celsius
3. 4
o
to 6o Celsius 4. 15o
to 20o Celsius
116. In emergency conditions where the whole blood is not available or until matching test
are known the following can be used 2
1. Concentrated human RBC
2. Dried human plasma
3. Human plasma protein fraction
4. Human fibrinogen
117. Venereal disease is contracted by 1
1. Physical contact 2. Hand infection
3. Arthopod vector 4. Droplet infection
118. Rod shaped bacteria are called 2
1. Cocci 2. Bacilli
3. Spirochetes 4. Vibrio
119. Decoction process is used for 4
1. Alcohol soluble and heat stable constituents of plants
2. Water soluble and thermo labile constituents of plants
3. Water insoluble and heat stable constituents of plants
4. Water soluble and heat stables constituents of plants
120. The normal pace maker of the heart is 2
1. Atrio-ventricular node 2. Sino-atrial node
3. Bundle of His 4. Purkinje fibers
121. Which of the following is the primary effect of digitalis in congestive cardiac failure ?
2
1. Decreased heart rate
2. Increased force of contraction of myocardium
3. Decreased venous out put
4. Increased urinary out put
122. Plant extract in the form of plastic mass is known as : 1
1. Pilular extract 2. Liquid extract
3. Fluid extract 4. Powder extract
123. Which of the following is penicillinase resistant penicillin ? 1
1. Benzyl penicillin 2. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
3. Cloxacillin 4. Penicillin G
124. Which of the following is not a macrolide antibiotic ? 1
1. Erythromycin 2. Oleandomycin
3. Spiromycin 4. Gentamicin
125. Choose the correct statement with respect to requirement of paediatric dose 1
1. The dose requirement is directly proportional
to age
2. The dose requirement is directly proportional
to height
3. A child require larger dose per/kg than adult
4. A child require lesser dose per/kg than adult
126. The percentage by volume of alcohol in proof spirit is 3
1. 57.10 2. 42.9
3. 49.28 4. 95
127. The bandage prepared from fabrics with cotton warp and wool weft is
1. Domette bandage 2. Stretch bandage
3. Cambric bandage 4. Cotton stretch bandage
128. Crepe bandage is helpful in all the following conditions EXCEPT 2
1. For giving light support to sprains and strains
2. For correctional purpose
3. As a compression bandage
4. To protect clothing from dressing
129. Bactericides used in sterilization by heating with bactericide are 1
1. Chlorocresol and Phenylmercuric Nitrate
2. Fomaldehyde and Chlorocresol
3. Phenyl mercuric nitrate and Methyl paraben
4. Chlorocresol and Methyl paraben
130. Presence of antibacterial agents in injectables requires that the antibacterial agent
inactivated before sterility testing. One of te methods to inactivation is by dilution with 3
1. Water 2. Normal saline
3. Culture medium 4. (2) or (3)
131. During prolonged starvation the glucose required for brain function is made available
by 3
1. Citric acid cycle 2. Glycogenesis
3. Gluconeogenesis 4. Glycogenesis
132. Increased blood glucose level may be due to 1
1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Hyper activity of thyroid
3. Emotional stress 4. All the above
133. Which of the following cardiovascular drug produce tachycardia ? 3
1. Propranolol 2. Procainamide
3. Quinidine 4. Lignocaine
134. Which of the following is calcium channel blocker ? 2
1. Amlodipin 2. Atenalol
3. Isesorbide dinitrate 4. Minoxidil
135. Cephalosporins are derivative of 1
1. Betalactam 2. Quinoline
3. Fluoroquinolone 4. Carbapenem
136. Which of the following antifungal agent is a polyene derivative ? 2
1. Amphotericin B 2. Clotrimazole
3. Griseofulvin 4. Flucytosine
137. 30 degree under proof spirit means 2
1. 100 volume of the spirit contains 30 volume of proof spirit
2. 100 volume of the spirit contains 70 volume of proof spirit
3. 100 volume of the spirit when diluted give 130 ml of proof spirit
4. 100 volume of the spirit when diluted give 170 ml of proof spirit
138. Intra venous injection of hypotonic solution may cause 4
1. Hemolysis
2. Shrinkage of RBC
3. Crenulation of blood cells
4. All the above

DRUG INSPECTOR PRACTICE QUESTION & ANSWERS – DI EXAM PRACTICE PAPER
139. Catgut is prepared from the intestine of 2
1. Cat 2. Pig
3. Ox 4. Sheep
140. Strings used for tying blood vessels during surgery is called 2
1. Ligature 2. Suture
3. Catgut 4. Fibers
141. Exotoxins are 1
1. Structural elements of bacteria
2. Normally found in Gram negative bacteria
3. Water soluble, high molecular weight protein or enzyme
4. Much less toxic
142. Virulence of bacteria is increased by 2
1. Growing under artificial condition
2. Successive and fairly rapid transfer from one susceptible host to another
3. Growing in an unfavorable condition
4. Growing in unnatural host
143. Which of the following is obtained from animal ? 2
1. Cantharidin 2. Ichthamnol
3. Diatomaceous earth 4. Vincristine
144. Sensory cortex is located in the following lobe of the cerebral cortex 1
1. Frontal lobe 2. Parietal lobe
3. Occipital lobe 4. Temporal lobe
145. Which of the following increases the steady state plasma concentration of digitalis when
co-administered ? 2
1. Aspirin 2. Verapamil
3. Paracetamol 4. Steroids
146. Maceration in which gentle heat is used during the process of extraction is called 2
1. Percolation 2. Infusion
3. Decoction 4. Digestion
147. Use of antibiotic is not justified in the prophylaxis of all the following conditions EXCEPT
3
1. Meningococcal infection in children
2. Endocarditis
3. Infection during catheterization
4. Infection due to climatic change
148. All the following are the reason for the difficulty in the treatment of T.B. EXCEPT 2
1. Occurrence of persister
2. Non availability of effective drug
3. Tubercle bacilli can remain viable and multiply even when ingested by macrophage
4. The cessation and fibrosis tend to block the
blood vessel making penetration of drugs
difficult
149. Which of the following injection is made slightly hypertonic ? 1
1. IV injection for rapid action
2. IM injection for rapid absorption
3. Intracutaneo injection is for rapid absorption
4. Subcutaneous injection for rapid absorption
150. Displacement value of zinc oxide with reference to theobroma oil is 5. That means 2
1. 1 g of zinc oxide replaces 5 g of theobroma oil
2. 5 g of zinc oxide replaces 1 g of theobroma oil
3. 1 ml of zinc oxide replaces 5 ml of theobromaoil
4. 5 ml of zinc oxide replaces 1 ml of theobroma oil

11. Williamson Synthesis is used for the preparation of:
(a) Aldehydes
(b) Alcohols
(c) Ethers
(d) Amides

12. Ketoconazole structure contains :
(a) Imidazole ring
(b) Triazole ring
(c) Tetrazole ring
(d) Thiazole ring

13. Vitamin containing steroidal moiety is:
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin B12

14. Dragendorff’s reagent is employed for the identification of :
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Alkaloids
(c) Flavonoids
(d) Proteins

15. In which one among the following is Pteridine ring system present?
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Thiamine
(c) Pyridoxine
(d) Folic acid

16. Aminophylline is a combination of:
(a) Theophylline and dimethylamine
(b) Caffeine and theophylline
(c) Theophylline and ethylenediamine
(d) Caffeine and ethylenediamine

17. Purine ring system is a fusion of:
(a) Pyridine and imidazole
(b) Pyrimidine and imidazole
(c) Piperidine and pyrazole
(d) Piperidine and imidazole

18. Furosemide contains the following heterocycle:
(a) Furan
(b) Thiophene
(c) Pyrrole
(d) Imidazole

19. Term of every patent in India (under Indian Patent Act) from the date of filing is:
(a) 10 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 24 years

20. Raloxifene is indicated for use in:
(a) Rickets
(b) Hypoparathyroidism
(c) Postmenopausal osteoporosis
(d) Intestinal osteodystrophy

1. Zero order kinetics is seen in all except:
(a) Salicylates
(b) Barbiturates
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Ethanol

2. Which one of the following is not a prodrug?
(a) Chloral hydrate
(b) Diazepam
(c) Enalapril
(d) Oxcarbazepine

3. Which one of the following drugs does not cross the placental barrier?
(a) Morphine
(b) Lithium
(c) Warfarin
(d) Heparin

4. The evidence which indicates that a drug is stored extravascularly is:
(a) Small clearance
(b) Small apparent volume of distribution
(c) Large apparent volume of distribution
(d) Large clearance

5. Which one among the following drugs can be given safely during pregnancy?
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) Primaquine

6. Lignocaine is used in the treatment of :
(a) Atrial Flutter
(b) Atrial Fibrillation
(c) PSVT
(d) Ventricular tachycardia

7. Which one among the following drugs is used in AV block?
(a) Isoprenaline
(b) Propranolol
(c) Dopamine
(d) Disopyramide

8. Mineralocorticoids cause:
(a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Glycogen synthesis
(c) Lipolysis
(d) Sodium reabsorption

9. In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is:
(a) Tungsten lamp
(b) Sodium lamp
(c) Deuterium lamp
(d) None of these

10. The principle of infrared spectra is based upon:
(a) Electronic excitation
(b) Resonance
(c) Dissociation
(d) Molecular vibrations

182 : –: : 210 : 380
(1)-. 342
(2) 272
(3) 240
(4) 156

In a particular code FACE is written as GBDF. In the same code BADE is to be
written as
(1) CBEF
(2) CEBF
(3) CFBE
(4) CBFE

In a patricular code TAP is written as SZO. In the same code FREEZE is to be written as .f~!>O’Y !’
(1) EQDFYG
(2) •ESDFYF
(3) GQFDYF
(4) EQDDYD

In a code MHUSMD is written as LI’ITLE. In the same code NTUD is to be written as
(1) MOVE
(2) MUTE
(3) MITE
(4) MATE

In a particular code AUTHOR is written as AUOTHR. In the same code PUBLIC is to be written as
(1) UBIPLC
(2), UIPBLC
(3) PCUBIL
(4) PBILCU

86, 48, 38, 14, 96, 54, 78, –
(1) 56
(2) 62
(3) 81
(4) 76

Fill the gap in the following with proper number
5,8, 13,21,34,55,
1) 85
(2) 92
(3) 89
(4) 58

A person saves Rs. 100/- after spending”from his income 1/5 on food and 3/5 on clothes. What is total income?
(1) Rs. 20
(2) Rs. 80
(3) Rs. 400
C4Y Rs. 500

Person ate 7 apples in 7 minutes. One person could eat one Apple in how many
minutes
(1) 7
(2) 2
(3) 49
(4) 117

Fill the gaps m the following with pro er numbers
5;6, 12, 10,28,26,62,62,-,-
(1) I 1_32, 126
(2) 132, 185
(3) 123, 126
( 4) 126, 132-

Fill the gap in the following with proper numbers
2, 12,36,80, 150,
1) 252
(2) 264•
(3) 384
(4) 272

6. Lignocaine is used in the treatment of :
(a) Atrial Flutter
(b) Atrial Fibrillation
(c) PSVT
(d) Ventricular tachycardia

7. Which one among the following drugs is used in AV block?
(a) Isoprenaline
(b) Propranolol
(c) Dopamine
(d) Disopyramide

8. Mineralocorticoids cause:
(a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Glycogen synthesis
(c) Lipolysis
(d) Sodium reabsorption

9. In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is:
(a) Tungsten lamp
(b) Sodium lamp
(c) Deuterium lamp
(d) None of these

10. The principle of infrared spectra is based upon:
(a) Electronic excitation
(b) Resonance
(c) Dissociation
(d) Molecular vibrations

RRB Pharmacist Exam Government Pharmacist DI Exam Books Preparation PDF

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RRB Pharmacist Exam Government Pharmacist DI Exam Books Preparation PDF

Pharmacist Exam Books Preparation PDF

Before any exam, the collection of study materials and books are inevitable. When it comes to competitive exams those are held nationally, the hurdle gets tougher. But there is no need to worry, for those who are keen to put their all-out effort in getting the exams cleared. The same applies to the Pharmacist exams being mostly held in government sector for some seats every year. Contenders who are applying the Pharmacist jobs need to take part the written test and further selection process.

Interested candidates need to take the Pharmacist Exam study materials including the previous question papers and books. It will make effective preparation for the applicants at the time of the Pharmacist Exam. Applicants need to go through the Pharmacist Solved question papers. While coming to books, those are written in the very concise form and designed for the candidates who are preparing for the competitive examination. In fact, it is far more advantageous if one keeps soft copies of all these materials handy. These books conglomerate the comprehensive information of the diverse subject in this discipline. Apart from getting basic subject knowledge of pharmacy, these books will help immensely to inculcate the subject matter to prepare themselves for different competitive examination either to go for higher studies or in a different level of written text for recruitment procedure. Presented in a simple manner to understand the matter and can memorize in the easiest way. You can access all the essential areas of major subjects in Pharmacy i.e. Pharmaceutics, Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Pharmacognosy, Pharmacology, Forensic Pharmacy, Biochemistry, Analytical Chemistry, and Microbiology to some extent.

It may happen that some candidates are unable to download the online files quickly but here we have tried to compile the direct and redirecting links which will surely be helpful for them.

Following are the books of Pharmacist Exam

Alfonso-R-Gennaro . Remington:

 The .Science and Practice of Pharmacy. [] 

               

Alfonso-R-Gennaro . Remington:

 The Science and Practice of Pharmacy. []

               

Gary D. Hall & Barry S. Reiss –

Appleton & Lange’s Review of Pharmacy

               

  1. B. Hugo & A. D. Russel –

Pharmaceutical Microbiology            

               

Mathews, Van Holde & Ahern –

Biochemistry         

               

W C Evans –

Trease & Evans-Pharmacognosy

               

Arun Bahl, BS Bahl and G.D take –

Basics of Physical Chemistry

               

Thomas L. Lemke & David A. Williams –

Principles Of Medicinal Chemistry

               

Loyd V. Allen Jr., Nicholas G. Popovich –

Ansel’s Pharmaceutical Dosage Forms

RRB Pharmacist Exam Government Pharmacist DI Exam Books Preparation PDF               

Sally S. Roche –

Roche Clinical Pharmacology primaries

               

ME Aulton –

pharmaceuticals: science design dosage form

               

Bertram G. Katzung –

basic clinical pharmacy

Best Books and How to prepare for Pharmacist Paramedical exam               

Spalding Gray –

Gray’s Anatomy

  1. F. Ganong –

Medical Physiology

                Arther C. Guyton –

Medical Physiology

                Mark G. Papich –

Saunders Veterinary E Directory Drugs book: small and large animals

                Jahangir Mweene –

pharmacy technician: comprehensive approach

                Morrison and Boyd –

Organic Chemistry

                Patrick J. Cinco –

Pharmacy Martin physical & Pharmaceutical-Sciences

                Donald C. Singer –

Audit Quality Laboratory of compliance and regulatory

                Albert L. Lehninger, David Lee Nelson, Michael Cox M. –

Principles of Biochemistry Lehninger

                Lauren Zentz –

Mathematics for pharmacy technicians

                John Bell and M. John Block –

book Wilson and Gisvold of Organic Chemistry medical and pharmaceutical

                Graham L. Patrick –

Introduction to Medicinal Chemistry

                Karen Baxter –

source book interactions, mechanisms, and clinical significance Management

                BNF for Children –

                Leon Shargel, Susanna Wu Bong, Andrew Yu –

bio-pharmacy and Applied Pharmacokinetics

                Dr. Gary Walsh –

biopharmaceuticals: biochemistry and biotechnology

                Howard_C. Ansel –

pharmaceutical_calculations

                Leon_Shargel, Alan_H_Mutnick, Paul-F-Souney, Larry-N-Swanson –

Comprehensive_Pharmacy_Review

                Leon Shargel, Alan H Mutnick, Paul-F-Souney, Larry-N-Swanson –

Comprehensive_Pharmacy_Review

                Shane Desselle, David Zgarrick –

Pharmacy Management: Essentials for all practice settings

  1. P. Rang, M. M. Dale, J. M. Ritter, P. K. Moore –

Pharmacology

                Manual pharmaceutical excipients

                Ryan Donnelly, Johan Barry –

choice questions in pharmaceutical calculations

                Donald_Cairns –

Essentials_of_Pharmaceutical_Chemistry

Review

Here the reader will get a brief fundamental content having a degree or diploma or going to be a qualified person in this field. While going through, hope the reader will be benefitted out of this effort of collective compilation. Wish you all the best for your bright future.

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers QA + QC PDF – Pharma Company Job Interview

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Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers QA + QC PDF - Pharma Company Job Interview

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers

The fact is very common and it was observed during research that on average 80% of candidates suffer from Interview Fear / Phobia. At the same time those who are able to overcome the fear of exposure, are certain to be successful in any case. Once you clear the Job Requirement, you have to jot down the probable questions and their answers i.e. what all an interviewer can ask you thus making your own interview study material. While doing this sought help from your friends and seniors who are in similar position or industry. If you practise this exercise seriously, you will be able to find out mostly asked questions and you are ready to prompt 80% of the interview correctly. Quality Control Executive jobs are offered for bachelor’s degree and B. Pharmacy fresher, as well as experienced persons, are eligible to apply.

In the pharmaceutical industry, usually, one should qualify the first round of exam for attending the face to face interview. It also depends on which pharmaceutical company you are applying for. It is very important to understand the job profile and what kind of individual is needed for that position. For that clarity, you have to identify your strengths and weaknesses. It is advisable not to enter into any kind of argument with Interviewer. Accept that the interviewer(s) have more experience, listen carefully to them and never argue to justify your point during the interview. Besides knowledge, organizations prefer to choose people who are honest and also flexible in their approach. Rigidity in approach may cost you your position as the business environment is changing very fast these days.

Before the interview closes, it is better to ask for feedback from interviewer irrespective of how your interview went. With this, the impact becomes Organization members feel that candidate has a seeking attitude and is willing to accept feedback resulting in a favorable impression about the candidate.

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers

Below some are given to have an idea of what sort of questions one may prepare.

Q/A

What is the difference between quality assurance and quality control?

Quality control is the process of identifying the defect and quality assurance is a process of improvement Quality control is reactive Action quality assurance is a protective action QC is a set of actions. Quality control takes CORRECTIVE ACTION during production,

Quality Assurance takes PREVENTIVE ACTION during development or after production (for completely prevention, if any defect arises)

What is the difference between Quality Assurance, Quality Control and Audit Function?

Quality assurance is a set of activities involved in the processes and Quality control is set of activities involved in product and audit function is nothing but the periodic inspection in the quality system.

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers QA + QC PDF - Pharma Company Job Interview

What does 6 Sigma represent?

Six Sigma represents the six standard deviations from the mean toward the upper specification limit in a normally distributed sample where an average of 3.4 defects per million is reported to live.  

Differentiate between product quality and process quality.

Product quality deals with the given specification of an individual product whereas the process quality deals with the process capability of the process that how much it can be effective to produce the quality products.

What is the maximum Acceptable Tolerance Limit for any product?

It is a TOLERANCE limit which is set by CONSUMER for acceptable any lot, parts, etc, generally within +/-5%

How do you track bug and report through Quality Control dept?

  • Tracking by sampling process, through
  • FIR (Final Inspection Report)
  • FOI (First off Approval Inspection Report)
  • Patrol Inspection Report

In Quality Assurance Plan & QC, what can be implemented to reduce rework in Acoustic Enclosure for manufacturing company?

  • Proper machine maintenance,
  • Consistent quality checks on the product,
  • Purchasing of quality raw materials,
  • Training and awareness of the operating procedure of the machine.

Quality Control Executive Interview Questions & Answers QA + QC PDF – Pharma Company Job Interview

When do we use a c-chart?

C chart is used when the item is too complex to analyse the product for confirming or not- confirming and subgroup size is same. It is used to monitor the number of defects per unit

What is meant by risk? How can you avoid the risks?

A risk is the possibility that an unfavourable event may occur. It may be predictable or unpredictable. A risk may have 3 components:

  • The event that could occur;
  • The probability that the event will occur;
  • The impact/consequences of the event that if it occurs.

 

One can avoid Risk by

  1. Identifying the Risk, 2. Quantifying the risk i.e. by Risk identification & Risk Prioritization. 3. Risk Response Development 4.Risk Resolution & Risk Monitoring.

 

Here we have provided most commonly asked basic questions for the QCE pharmacy interview. There is no specific pattern/rule for asking the interview questions. As the level goes up the pattern also becomes changed for the particular cases where the candidate has worked in projects’ and sometimes they also may ask about the knowledge of the organization. It’s purely an interviewer choice. These interview related information of QC in pharmacy are based on some experienced interviewees suggestions. Hopefully, it would be of help!

 

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

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How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? If You have this in your mind this article is for you. When you want to crack government DI Examination then you must read this post from pharmawiki.in. We will help you to get Drug Inspector job in an easy and smarter way. Even though hard work pays you success these days you need to work smart to punch the door of success.

Every year hundreds of thousands of candidates aim to sit for the exams held by the central and the state Govt. Drug Inspector is one of those posts of government sector that people acquiring background in medicine and pharmacy field have always wanted to go for. Hence, just sitting in exam is not fruitful until one cracks it. So, tight preparation for this exam is very essential.

Basically the Drug Inspector exam is divided into two parts one is written and the other is viva-voce. One has to qualify a written examination and interview along with the physical fitness test to become eligible for appointment. The papers shall comprise of objective type multiple choice based questions.

The Paper I shall contain subject specific questions. The Paper II shall consist of general studies and mental ability questions. The candidates should also prepare for the General Science questions including recent developments in the field of Science & Technology.

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam?
Few tips for the best preparation:

  • Start as early as possible for the preparation. Firstly you have to learn about the syllabus and important topics of the examination. You need proper basic knowledge of the entire subject, hence focus to improve your basics.
  • Make notes for every subject. Prepare pharmacy portion strongly with daily revision. Also keep an eye over the GK & Current affairs. Practice is the key to crack DI exam. Solve more and more MCQ so that it enhances your accuracy. By doing this, you can eliminate the wrong options easily during exam.
  • Go through the question bank papers of DI examination. You should study at least 8 to 10 hours regularly to leave no place unseen.
  • Lastly you have to be stress free and dehydrated, full with energy. Preferably, don’t waste time for a particular question in exam hall.

Role of Drug Inspectors

They are qualified persons working in the manufacturing and distribution sector of drugs. Using their technical and intellectual ability these professionals grade diverse products.

Their prime responsibility is to inspect whether the medicines maintain legal standards of sanitation, limpidness, and grading. They visit various pharmacies, laboratories and drug-manufacturing stores to check the quality of the manufactured products those are sold.

How to prepare for Drug Inspector Exam? DI Examination Preparation Guide

All the very best for your preparation time which consequently lead you to the family of government sector  Pharmaceutical Drug Inspector Job vacancy.

GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise – GPAT MATERIAL PDF – Pharmacy Previous Papers

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GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise - GPAT MATERIAL PDF - Pharmacy Previous Papers

GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise: The Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test is called as GPAT, which is an annual all India examination conducted by All India Council for Technical Education, New Delhi. The test is for the evaluation of Pharmacy graduates candidates seeking admission into the Masters (M. Pharm) program in recognized universities and private colleges offering Post Graduation studies in Pharmacy. The results are also used to determine eligibility of students for scholarships and other financial assistance.

GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise - GPAT MATERIAL PDF - Pharmacy Previous Papers
GPAT Preparation Books Subject-wise – GPAT MATERIAL PDF – Pharmacy Previous Papers

It consists of Multiple Choice Questions from the subjects such as Pharmaceutics, Pharmaceutical Analysis, Pharmacognosy, Medicinal Chemistry, Biochemistry, Organic Chemistry, Pharmacology, Microbiology and Basics of Pharmaceutical Sciences. There will be emphasis on analytical chemistry as well with questions mostly from B. Pharmacy syllabus. Numerical part is also very important part of the exam and most students are prone to skip them. Generally, the numerical questions that are asked in the exam are from Pharmacokinetics, Posology. Hence it is recommended to solve numerical sums right from the B.Pharm course when one aims for GPAT. GPAT Exam is considered to be one of the most important exams so it is must for the student to do the best preparation. Students those appearing for GPAT have to study standard textbooks for good score in GPAT. For thorough study, one needs to study in details the subjects allotted. Following the syllabus of the GPAT is essential as the exam is held every year in the month of January tentatively.

The list of the study materials and books are as follows:

GPAT Books for Basics of Pharmaceutical Sciences

  • Health Education & Community Pharmacy: For First Year Diploma by N. S. Parmar
  • Remington : The Science and Practice of Pharmacy : Alfonso R Gennaro
  • The Theory And Practice Of Industrial Pharmacy : Lachman

GPAT Books for Organic Chemistry: 

  • By Morrison & Boyd
  • Advance Organic Chemistry: Reaction, Mechanism & Structure by Jerry March

GPAT Books for Medicinal Chemistry: 

  • By Wilson & Gisvold’s Textbook of Organic Medicinal and Pharmaceutical Chemistry 11th Ed.

GPAT Books for Biochemistry:

  • Biochemistry: By Lehninger
  • By Satyanarayan

EBooks:

  • Biochemistry of Lipids, Lipoproteins and Membranes edited by J.E. Vance, Dennis E. Vance
  • Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology by By M. R. Chaudhari, Y. A. Kulkarni, S. B. Gokhale
  • Lipids: Biochemistry, Biotechnology and Health By Michael I. Gurr, John L. Harwood, Keith N

GPAT Books for Physical Chemistry:

EBooks:

  • Physical Chemistry by Dr. R. R. Misra
  • Physical Chemistry Lecture Notes by Prof. Rob Schurko R.W. Schurko, University of Windsor
  • Introductory Physical Chemistry bynbsp; Rob Schurko
  • Advanced Physical Chemistry By Carol A. Venanzi

GPAT Books for Pharmacology: 

  • Rang & Dale, K.D. Tripati, Goodman & Gilman.

EBooks:

  • Pharmacology Test Prep: 1500 USMLE-Style Questions & Answers, By Mario Babbini, Mary L. Thomas
  • Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 14E by Bertram G. Katzung, Anthony J. Trevor

GPAT Books for Pharmaceutics:

  • Pharmaceutics: The Science of Dosage Form Design by Aulton
  • Physical Pharmacy by Martin.
  • By Ansel

EBooks:

  • Modern Pharmaceutics by banker Rhodes

 

GPAT Books for Pharmaceutical Analysis:

  • Spectroscopy – Silverstein
  • Instrumental methods of Chemical Analysis – B. K. Sarma
  • Text Book of Pharmaceutical Analysis – K. A. Connors
  • Instrumental methods of Chemical Analysis – Chatwal
  • Analytical Chemistry Skoog’s
  • By Dr. Ravi Shankar

GPAT Books for Microbiology:

  • Industrial microbiology by Cascida
  • Microbiology by Pelzar
  • Industrial microbiology by Prescott and Dunn

GPAT Books for Pharmacognosy:

  • Text Book of Pharmacognosy by K. Kokate
  • Text Book of Pharmacognosy by E. Walis
  • Text Book of Pharmacognosy by Treas and Evans

GPAT Books are according to the subjects, so you might have some difficulty to get the books for GPAT according to the subjects. If one wants to get admission in these courses then he/she must refer to the best GPAT preparation books and GPAT Subject-Wise Study Material. One may refer to the also refer the GPAT entrance examination books that will help as a guide and the eBooks in PDF can be downloaded too. Here we have tried our best to compile the books subject wise so that the readers don’t have to put much effort and time in the searching process. Hope this information will definitely help the candidates to do the best preparation for the exam.

All the best!

GPAT Sample Questions:

21-One fluid ounce is?
Ans-30 ml
Note- A fluid ounce (abbreviated fl oz) is a unit of volume (also called capacity) typically used for measuring liquids.

22-The plant drug which is oxytocic?
Ans-Ergot
Note- Oxytocic are the agents that stimulate uterine contraction, used in Induction of labor and to control postpartum bleeding. Ergot Alkaloids- Ergometrine & Methyl ergometrine is used.

23-The diagnostic agent used for the functioning of thyroid gland?
Ans-I-131
Note- Thyroid gland produce, store, and release hormones into the bloodstream so the hormones can reach the body’s cells. The thyroid gland uses iodine from the foods you eat to make two main hormones: Triiodothyronine (T3) and Thyroxine (T4)

24-The constituent of cholesterol termed as bad cholesterol is?
Ans-LDL
Note- VLDL cholesterol is a type of blood fat. It’s considered one of the “bad” forms of cholesterol, along with LDL cholesterol and triglycerides. (LDL) are called as “bad” cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol can build up in your arteries, causing heart disease.

25-Sterols belongs to the class of?
Ans-Lipids
Note- Sterols, also known as steroid alcohols, are a subgroup of the steroids, occur naturally in plants, animals, and fungi, with the most familiar type of animal sterol being cholesterol.

26-Hepatitis is a?
Ans-Viral infection
Note- Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver tissue, There are five main types of viral hepatitis: Type A, B, C, D, and E.

27-A leukotriene receptor antagonist used in allergic cough is?
Ans-Montelukast
Note- Leukotriene receptor antagonists, such as montelukast, zafirlukast, and pranlukast used to treat allergies and prevent asthma attacks.

28-The sulphonamide used in burn therapy is?
Ans-Sulfadiazine
Note- Sulphonamides are synthetic antimicrobial agents that contain the sulfonamide group.silver sulfadiazine is applied to the skin to treat and prevent wound infections associated with second or third degree burns.

29-A hypotonic solution made isotonic by adding?
Ans-Sodium chloride
Note- Hypertonic solution is a particular type of solution that has a greater concentration of solutes on the outside of a cell when compared with the inside of a cell.
Hypertonic solution is a particular type of solution that has a greater concentration of solutes on the inside of a cell when compared with the outside of a cell.

30-The pathogenic organism in milk is killed by?
Ans-Pasteurization
Note- Pasteurization to kill pathogenic bacteria has helped reduce the transmission of diseases, such as typhoid fever, tuberculosis, polio etc.

GPAT Books are according to the subjects, so you might have some difficulty to get the books for GPAT according to the subjects. If one wants to get admission in these courses then he/she must refer to the best GPAT preparation books and GPAT Subject-Wise Study Material. One may refer to the also refer the GPAT entrance examination books that will help as a guide and the eBooks in PDF can be downloaded too. Here we have tried our best to compile the books subject wise so that the readers don’t have to put much effort and time in the searching process. Hope this information will definitely help the candidates to do the best preparation for the exam.

All the best for your GPAT Examination!

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

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Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

Drug Inspector exam- Subjects, Syllabus, Books, and Practice Papers are  here in this article. The Government exam of Drug Inspector is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission known as UPSC and also various state PSCs and Staff Selection committees on an annual basis. All the interested candidates those are eligible can register application form after going through the UPSC Drug Inspector Notification released every year. According to the official notification, the application is invited to online mode and candidates can register from December month of the year. The vacancies are available for the appointment of Drug Inspector vacancy in various departments. Additional details about eligibility criteria like qualification, a method of the application procedure, selection process and other required details are also available on the official website. The recruitment process for these Drug Inspector vacancies will be completed by the next year in the month of October. All the qualified candidates who are aspiring to be the Drug Inspector, they can send the application form to exam community with the help of postal services. The application fee can be paid offline or online mode before the deadline.

Aspirants who are seeking for Drug inspector posts should possess the bachelor degree in medicine/ science/degree in Pharmacy with minimum 45% marks in the qualifying exam from any PCI recognized university. All the job seekers who want to work as Drug inspector should have a minimum experience of 18 months in the testing/manufacturing field or be a registered Pharmacist. Candidate should be Indian citizen; minimum age should be 35 years and maximum 50 years as per the government rules & regulation. Relaxation of 5 years is allowed for the reserved category. A category wise or state wise recruitment details are available in the official advertisement.

For the candidate to be aware of the curriculum here we are notifying the subjects, syllabus, books and the practice papers of the Drug Inspector Exam.

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI – Exam Pattern

Paper Subject Marks Duration
Paper-I Pharmacy 200 marks 2 Hours
Paper-II General  Studies and Mental Ability 50 marks 1 Hour

Check here Drug Inspector Exam Solved papers

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Pharmacy Syllabus

 

Human Anatomy & Physiology Pharmacognosy
Clinical Pathology Biochemistry
Drug Store Management Pharmaceutical Chemistry
Pharmaceutics Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy
Pharmacology Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence
Accountancy Health Education & Community Pharmacy
Toxicology Commerce

 

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Studies and Mental Ability Syllabus

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Knowledge

 

Indian Constitution Science – Inventions & Discoveries
History Budget and Five Year Plans
Geography Important Financial & Economic News
Economy Scientific Research
Culture India and its neighbouring countries
Sports Knowledge of Current Events
General Politics Current Affairs – National & International
Economy, Banking, and Finance Countries & Capitals

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI General Intelligence

 
Logical Reasoning Syllogism
Blood Relations Input Output
Coding Decoding Alphanumeric Series
Ranking/Direction/Alphabet Test Data Sufficiency
Coded Inequalities Seating Arrangement
Puzzle Tabulation  

 

Drug Inspector Exam- DI English

 

Articles Prepositions
Tenses Verbs
Synonyms Antonyms
Proverbs Conjunctions
Sentences Structure Phrases
Unseen Passage Vocabulary

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Tentative books recommended

  • Tutorial Pharmacy by Cooper and Gunn
  • Forensic Pharmacy by C. Kokate (for the drug laws)
  • General Studies Paper I for Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2018
  • Lucents General Knowledge book
  • NCERT Books Set (English Medium) for UPSC Exam (Prelims, Mains), IAS, Civil Services, IFS, IES and other exams

 Check more about Drug Inspector Exam

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Model Test Papers

  • Pharmarocks- The Way of Success DI study material booklet, model papers by Mr. Amar Raval
  • One can follow our website for the latest updates of the mock papers for self-practice.

Drug Inspector Exam- DI Subjects Syllabus Books & Practice Model Papers 2018 2019

It depends on the state level as well as the central level based on which the general studies including the G.K questions may come. All those candidates who are going to attempt the examination must prepare through the previous year papers, Drug inspector model papers. If anyone is admitted to coaching classes then most of the centres will also make the student practice previous year question paper. The old question papers can be downloaded for free from the internet.

Drug Inspector Exam Practice:

Here are few basics You must know.

  • A break in a capsule is a fracture in the surface of the capsule.
  • A break in a tablet is the separation or dislodging of more than
    10 percent of the tablet.
  • Caking in suspensions is the settling of the solid material in a suspension tothe bottom; the cake does not easily redisperse on shaking.
  • Capping or cavitations of tablets is the separation (or tendency toward separation) of aportion of the upper or lower surface of the tablet.
  • Capsule shapes bulletlike
    conventional
    elliptical (oval)
    oblong
    round
    tapered ends
    various special shapes
  • Capsule types • hard gelatin shell that consists of two pieces:
  • a base containing the medicine and a cap covering
    the base 
  • soft gelatin shell consisting of two flexible pieces formed into a body that is permanently sealed and that may contain a liquid, powder, or semisolid.
  • Chain of custody is the record of individuals who have accessed sample material from the time of collection by an inspector until its ultimate destruction. Both the record and the sample, from its time of collection to the time of its destruction, must be kept safely (under key and lock) and under systematic control.
  • Certificate of Analysis is a document supplied by the manufacturer summarising the physical and analytical data for a particular lot or batch of drug product; is the basis for the product batch or lot being released for sale.
  • Chipping is removal of parts of the tablet, usually at the edges; caused by low friability.
  • Confiscate is to officially take away from a vendor or importer
    and to assume custody of a drug consignment stocked
    on the premises or at the port of entry. The intention
    is to stop the drugs’ distribution to the public. Usually
    done for drugs shown to be counterfeit or of
    substandard quality or associated with unexpected
    illness or death.
    Consignment or “R” number is a consignment tracking reference number assigned
    by the India Revenue Authority. “R” stands for
    “reference.” This number, together with the date,
    distinctively identifies an imported consignment.
  • Detain is to perform the following actions:
    1. Write “DETAIN” in the space provided in the Port of Entry Consignment Inspection Form.
    2. Stop the inspection, complete the Rejection/Detention Form, and inform the India  Revenue Authority/Customs and Excise Department of the rejection or detention.
    3. Give a copy of the form to the India Revenue Authority and the customer.
    4. Refer the importer/consignee to the TFDA.
    5. Upon resolution of detention issues by written instructions from the TFDA, continue the inspection
    from where it stopped.
  • Detention is the retention of a consignment pending resolution of outstanding issues by the TFDA. However, if the issues are not resolved to the satisfaction of the TFDA, detention status, upon written instructions
    from the TFDA, is converted to rejection.
  • Final Classification and Valuation Report is prepared at the exporting country port by COTECNA, which is the third-party contractor to the India Revenue Authority/Customs and Excise Department. The Final  Classification and Valuation
    Report, a Customs and Excise Department document, confirms that the imported goods have the correct
    quality, quantity, and value.
    First expiring, first out is a practice intended to keep the product inventory in good rotation to prevent pharmaceuticals and supplies from expiring on the shelf.
    GPHF Minilab stands for German Pharma Health Fund Minilab, a pharmaceutical product testing kit that has materials for colour reaction, thin-layer chromatography, and disintegration testing of essential drugs.
  • Immediate container is a type of packaging such as a tin or a bottle that is in direct contact with the medicine; also referred to as the “primary container.”
  • Import Certificate is a document issued by the TFDA authorising the importation of approved drugs into the country.
    Liquid or semisolid dosage forms can be a clear liquid, a suspension, or a dry powder for a suspension that must be reconstituted as directed on the manufacturer’s label before use.
  • Percent (%) of remaining shelf life This value is equal to:
    (Expiry date – Date on receipt at port of entry) × 100
    (Expiry date – Manufacturing date)
    Or:
    (Remaining shelf life on arrival) × 100
    (Shelf life of the product)
  • Port of entry name is the name of an authorised place of entry for drug consignments; this name must be filled in on the Port of Entry Consignment Inspection Form.
  • Pro Forma Invoice is presented to the TFDA for approval before a shipment can enter India . A properly endorsed Pro Forma Invoice has two signatures from TFDA officials and the TFDA stamp. The signatures and the stamp indicate that the exporter and consignee are both properly licensed and that the drug manufacturer, product, and dosage forms are in compliance with TFDA requirements. 
  • Quarantine is the retention of a consignment, not allowing its use until further tests are performed to ascertain its quality.
  • Sample Receipt Form is a document drug inspectors must complete for every sample of a batch of drug product collected.
  • Secondary container is a type of packaging that holds a number of immediate or primary containers.
    Splitting of a tablet describes the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet from the main body.
  • Surveillance Programme Document defines which pharmaceutical products are to be
    examined, collected, and tested.
  • Tablet types buccal
    hypodermic
    impregnated (including delayed-action, repeat-action,
    prolonged-action, and sustained-action tablets)
    ophthalmic
    oral
    pellet
    solution
    sublingual
    vaginal

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy – Test Info

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List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy - Test Info

Entrance Tests for B . Pharmacy & M. Pharmacy

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy – Test Info List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy – Test Info

Just like we take EAMCET to enter Engineering, students who are willing to go for B. Pharmacy courses will take various entrance examinations.  The entrance examinations include BHU B Pharma Entrance Exam, GPAT – Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test, MHT-CET Maharashtra Common Entrance Test etc.  The entrance tests vary from state to state and institute to institute.  Candidates depending on to which state they belong with take the entrance exam conducted by their respective states.  Candidates can work in various areas of discipline like chemist shops, drug control administration, educational institutes, food and drug administration, health centers, hospitals, medical dispensing store, pharmaceutical firms, research agencies, sales and marketing departments etc.

Entrance Tests for B Pharmacy

As the intermediate exams have completed recently and most of the state results are released, now most of the students must be getting ready to apply for the entrance examinations to study B. Pharmacy.  There will be definitely bright carrier who pursues B. Pharmacy.  It is one of the leading courses at this point in time, which is being studied by zillions of people all around the globe.  Students who are willing to do Pharmacy can apply to the Pharmacy entrance exams that will be soon notified.

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy – Test Info

Many want to study B.Pharmacy courses and M pharmacy education. so, here we provide list of entrance exams for B pharma and M pharma.

B pharmacy M Pharmacy Entrance Exams:

Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT)

Manpal Test

Andra pradesh post graduation test APPG_CET

Bihar Combined Entrance Competitive Examination (BCECE)

Rajasthan University of Health Sciences (RUHS-P)

Banaras Hindu University Entrance Test (BHUET) 

West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination (WBJEE-Pharmacy)

Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE-Pharmacy)
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University, Uttar Pradesh

Odisha Joint Entrance Examination – Pharmacy (OJEE-P)

Birla Institute of Science and Technology Admission Test (BITSAT)

Best Pharma colleges

Raj Kumar Goel Institute Of Technology (Pharmacy), Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh

Amrita School Of Pharmacy, Kochi, Kerela

Manipal College Of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Manipal, Karnataka

Institute Of Pharmacy, Nirma University, Ahmedabad, Gujarat

Birla Institute Of Technology, Ranchi, Jharkhand

Periyar College Of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Tiruchirappalli, Tamil Nadu

Mallige College Of Pharmacy, Bangalore, Karnataka

School Of Pharmacy, Solan, Himachal Pradesh

Maliba Pharmacy College, Tarsadi, Gujarat

University Institute Of Pharmacy, Raipur, Chhattisgarh,

MVP Samaj’s College Of Pharmacy, Nashik, Maharashtra

Jamia Hamdard, Delhi

Bombay College Of Pharmacy, Mumbai

N.E.T Pharmacy College, Raichur, Karnataka

List of Entrance Examination for B . Pharma & M. Pharmacy - Test Info

N.G.S.M.Institute Of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Mangalore, Karnataka

University Institute Of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Chandigarh

Shri G.S. Institute Of Tech. & Science, Indore, Madhya Pradesh

 

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post – Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

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Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post - Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post

Online applications are invited from candidates for Drug Inspector by Food & Drug Administration department for given vacancies. Candidates after submitting their applications through On-Line shall send photocopies of their all academic/required documents regarding their claims along with print out of On-Line application form within 21 days from the last date of submitting the applications on the working day through registered/Speed Post or Personally in the office of the Commission. For this purpose the candidates are advised to download address slip from Commission’s website and to paste it on the envelope containing documents. In Absence of required relevant documents/records, the claims made by the candidates shall not be tenable and relevant documents/records received after due date in the office of the Commission will not be accepted.

Drug Inspector Exam – Recruitment of DI Post - Notification of Food & Drug Inspector

Post: Drug Inspector – 91 posts

No. of posts of Drug Inspector Exam:

Unreserved: 38 posts

ST: 30 posts

SC: 11 posts

OBC: 12 posts

Education for Drug Inspector Exam:

A person who is appointed as inspector under the Act shall be a person who has Degree in pharmacy or Pharmaceuticals Sciences or Medicine with specialization in Clinical Pharmacology or Microbiology from a University established in India by law.

Nature of Post for Drug Inspector Exam :

Gazetted/Temporary and 2 years of probation period.

Essential Qualification for Drug Inspector Exam:

A candidate for direct recruitment to the post of Drugs Inspector must possess the following qualifications:- (i) Degree in Pharmacy or Pharmaceutical Sciences or Medicine with specialization in Clinical Pharmacology or Microbiology or equivalent from a recognized University;

(ii) (a) Eighteen Month’s Experience in the manufacture of at least one of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, Or (b) Eighteen Month’s Experience in testing of at least one of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, in a laboratory approved for this purpose by the licensing authority, or (c) Three year’s experience in the inspection of firms manufacturing any of the substances specified in Schedule ‘C’ to the Drug and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 during the tenure of their services as Drug Inspector of any State Government or Central Government.

Preferential Qualification- Other things being equal, such candidates shall be given preferences in the matter of direct recruitment- (1) Who has served in the territorial army for minimum period of two years. or (2) Who has obtained a “B” certificate of National cadet corps.

Exam Fee for Drug Inspector Exam:

UR: 450

OBC: 350

SC/ST/handicapped: 300

Age limit for Drug Inspector Exam:

Min 21 years and Max 30 years

Age limit will be flexible for resident of chhattisgarh as per notice from general administration department.

Candidates will be selected by merit through exam.

Any applications to improve any error will not accepted by online or offline medium. Exam results will be declared on basis of answers in OMR answer sheet. Exams results will be declared on basis of category, class, date of birth. No applications will be accepted for eroor improvement before or after exam results.

Age Limit- 21 to 40 years (upper age limit for reserved category candidates shall be relaxable as per rules).

Important directions for Drug Inspector Exam:

Candidates must ensure that they have all certificates of their claim about age, Essential Qualification, experience certificate issued by authorised officer, no objection certificate (If in Govt. service.) and prescribed certificate for reservation and U.P. Domicile certificate from father side for the woman candidates at the time of applying the application form.

Online Application Fee for Drug Inspector Exam:

In the ON-LINE Application process, after completing the procedure of first stage, category wise prescribed fee is to be deposited as per instructions provided in second stage. The prescribed fee for different categories is as under:-

Unreserved (General)   Exam fee ` 80/-+ On-line processing fee 25/-   

Total = 105/-

Other Backward Class Exam fee ` 80/-+ On-line processing fee 25/-    

Total = 105/-

Scheduled Caste-Exam fee ` 40/-  + On-line processing fee 25/-    

Total =  65/-

Scheduled Tribe  Exam fee40/-  + On-line processing fee25/-    

Total =65/-

Handicapped – Exam fee NIL  + On-line processing fee  25/- Total= 25/-

Rules for Drug Inspector Exam: Notification Syllabus PDF

  1. Following candidates are not eligible
  2. Male candidates who have more than one spouse alive and same way female candidates who have married to man whose first spouse is alive. In such matters government has rights to take decisions.
  3. Those who are not fit physically and mentally
  4. Those who married before minimum age for marriage
  5. Any candidates, who have two or more living child and out of which one born after 26 Jan 2001, are not eligible.
  1. It will be responsibility of candidates to check for all eligibility criterias. Means, Candidate should check out for all rules and eligibility before applying for posts. At any point of time during selection, if candidate found uneligible then candidature will be terminated.

Example Questions for DI examination: DRUG INSPECTOR EXAM

1. P wave of ECG is the result of

1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

2. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in

1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock

3. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea

4. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ?
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property

5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare

6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ?
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium

8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate

9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called

1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte

10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella

 

11. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ?
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine

Look out for PREVIOUS DRUG INSPECTOR EXAM QUESTION PAPERS here