D Pharmacy 1st Year B Pharm First Sem – Anatomy & Physiology Notes – Solved Question Paper

July 26, 2020August 1, 2018 by Renee

Lymph node D Pharmacy 1st Year B Pharm First Sem - Anatomy & Physiology Notes

Here is a great article for our readers especially D Pharmacy 1st Year B Pharm First Sem students who are struggling to learn Anatomy & Physiology Subjects. Hence we provide Notes as Solved Question Paper which are very important for your examinations.

Give functions of mitochondria & endoplasmic reticulum. (1 mark each)

Mitochondria is known as power house of cell. They are involved in cellular respiration, the process by which chemical energy is made available in the cell. When nutrients and oxygen come in contact with the oxidative enzymes of mitochondria, they combine to form CO2, water & energy, this is in the form of ATP. (aerobic oxidation)

Endoplasmic reticulum are of two types. Smooth and rough. Smooth ER synthesizes lipids and steroid hormones and associated with detoxification of drugs. Rough ER is studded with ribosomes. It is a site of synthesis of proteins that are exported from

b) Define tissue. Classify connective tissue. (def. 1 mark, classification 1 mark)

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Groups of cells which have the same physical characteristics and similar functions are termed as tissues.

Classification of connective tissue:

Connective tissue proper: i) Areolar tissu ii) Adipose tissue

iii) White fibrous tissue iv) Yellow elastic tissue

Specialised connective tissue: i) Bone ii) Cartilage

Vascular tissue: i) Blood ii) Lymphoid tissue

c) What are true ribs & false ribs? ( 2 marks)

There are 12 pairs of ribs. Anteriorly, the first seven pairs of ribs are attached to the sternum via costal cartilage & are known as true ribs. The next three ribs are attached indirectly via seventh rib & known as false ribs

d) Write composition of blood. (2 marks)

Composition

It is composed of a liquid matrix plasma (55%) & different cells suspended in it (45%).

Plasma- Composition– Water-90-92%, plasma proteins, inorganic salts, nutrients, waste material, hormones & gases.

Blood cells – Red blood cells or erythrocytes, white blood cells or leucocytes and platelets or thrombocytes

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e) Draw and label lymph node

f) What is SA node & AV node? (1 mark each)

SA node (sinoatrial node) This is small mass of specialized neuromuscular cells in the walls of myocardium of right atrium near the opening of the superior vena cava. It is known as pacemaker of the heart as it initiates the impulses.

AV node- (atrioventricular node): This is the mass of neuromuscular cells in the wall of the atrial septum near the AV valves. Normally it conducts the impulses that are originated by SA node. It is known as secondary pace maker as it generates the impulses when there is problem with SA node.

g) Give the functions of CSF. (4 functions, 2 marks)

To support & protect brain & spinal

Maintain uniform pressure around

Acts as cushion & shock absorber

Keeps brain & spinal cord

h) Define (any two) (each 1 mark)

Presbyopia: As a process of aging, the lens loses its elasticity; the distant objects are seen clear but close objects are

Cataract: This is opacity of lens which may be age related or congenital bilateral or unilateral.

Hypermetropia: Also known as farsightedness. Far vision is normal but close vision is blurred, because the near image is focused behind the retina as eye ball length is too short or due to flattened

i) Write the functions of hypothalamus. ( 2 marks)

It controls the hormone release from pituitary

Control of autonomic nervous system, appetite & satiety, thirst, body , emotions, sexual behavior & biological clock.

j) Name any two cranial nerves with their function. (Any 2, 2 marks)

Olfactory – sense of smell

Optic – sense of light/vision

Occulomotor – movement of the eyeball, change shape of lens, Constriction of pupil, raising the upper lid.

Trochlear – movement of the eye

Trigeminal – receives impulses of pain temp. & touch for face & head, stimulates muscle of mastication

Abducent – abduction of eye ball

Facial – conveys impulse from taste buds & supplies muscles of facial expression

Auditory (vestibulocochlear) – conveys impulses to the cerebellum for posture &

Balance & sense of hearing

Glossopharyngeal – Sense of taste, production of saliva and movement of

Pharynx

Vagus – Secretion, movement in organs

Accessory – Movements of head, shoulder, pharynx and larynx

Hypoglossal – Supplies to the muscle of tongue & muscle surrounding the hyoid bone & helps in swallowing & speech.

k) What are auditory ossicles? (1 mark) Write their function. (1 mark)

Auditory ossicles: Malleus, incus & stapes are the three small bones in the middle ear extending from tympanic membrane to the oval window. Sound vibrations of tympanic membrane are amplified & transmitted by these bones.

l) What is B.P.? Name the factors affecting B.P. (def 1 mark and any 4 factors 1 mark)

B.P is the force or lateral pressure which the blood exerts on the wall of blood vessels. Factors affecting B.P. are exercise, nutrition, age, stress, circulating hormones, autonomic nervous system activity.

Q2. Solve any four of the following: 12

Define respiration. Write the process of external respiration. (def 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)

Respiration is a process of supply of oxygen present in atmosphere into the body & excretion for carbon dioxide.

External respiration- (cycle of breathing)

The normal human has 12-15 breath per min. Each breath consists of inspiration, expiration & pause.

Inspiration: The simultaneous contraction of intercostal muscles & diaphragm increases the capacity of thoracic cavity. This reduces the pressure in the lungs. To equalise the pressure the air from atmosphere enters the lungs. The process of inspiration is active as it needs energy for muscle contraction. It lasts for 2 sec.

Expiration: Relaxation of intercostal muscles & diaphragm results in decrease in the space in the lungs. As a result, the pressure inside the lungs increases as compared to atmospheric pressure. The air from the lungs is expelled from the lungs. This process is passive as does not require energy. The expiration lasts for 3 sec. After expiration there is pause & then the next cycle begins.

b) Write steps involved in urine formation. Describe selective reabsorption. (steps 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)

There are three processes of urine formation:

Glomerular filtration
Selective reabsorption
Tubular secretion.

Selective reabsorption:

Selective reabsorption is the process by which the composition and volume of the glomerular filtrate is altered during its passage through the convoluted tubules, Loop of Henle and the collecting tubule. The purpose of this process is to reabsorb those constituents of the filtrate which are essential to the body, maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance and the alkalinity of blood.

Some constituents of the glomerular filtrate e.g. glucose; vitamins and amino acids get completely reabsorbed into the blood. These substances are called high- threshold substances.

Low-threshold substances like urea, uric acid are absorbed slightly.

Some substances e.g. creatinine are not at all absorbed.(no-threshold substances) Parathormone from parathyroid gland & calcitonin from thyroid gland regulate reabsorption of calcium & phosphate,

ADH from posterior pituitary increases the permeability of the tubule & increases water reabsorption.

Aldosterone by adrenal cortex increases reabsorption of sodium.

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c)What is muscle tone? Give the functions of muscle. (muscle tone 1 mark, functions 2 marks)

Muscle tone is a sustained partial muscle contraction that allows maintenance of posture of the body.

Functions of the muscles are-

Skeletal muscles contract & help the movement of the body & stability of the joint. It also helps in generation of heat.Intercostal muscles help in respiration.

Smooth muscles helps contraction & relaxation of blood vessels & controls blood flow & movement of the food in the alimentary
Cardiac muscles help in the functioning of

d)Give the composition & function of gastric juice. (comp. 1 mark, functions 2 marks)

Composition of gastric juice:

Water, mineral salt, mucus, HCl, intrinsic factor, pepsinogen Functions of gastric juice-

Water liquifies the food.
HCl acidifies the food & stops the action of salivary
HCl kills the
Pepsinogen is activated to pepsin by HCl. This digests protein to smaller
Intrinsic factor absorbs vit. B12 from small
Mucus prevents mechanical injury to the stomach

e) Name hormones of adrenal cortex & mention their functions. (names 1 mark, functions 2 marks)

Adrenal cortex produces three groups of hormones namely glucocorticoids, Mineralocorticoid & androgens.

Glucocorticoids: Cortisol or hydrocortisone is the main glucocorticoid. Others are corticosterone & cortisone.

They regulate metabolism like gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis. Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone.) It regulates water & electrolyte balance. It increases the reabsorption of Na ions.

Androgens: The compounds secreted are insignificant to show any action.

f) Define reproduction. Name the different reproductive organs of male reproductive system. (def 1 mark, organs 2 marks)

Reproduction is the process of formation of offspring OR It is defined as process by which genetic material is passed from one generation to another & thus maintains continuation of species.

The male reproductive system consists of the following organs:

Testis 2		Epididymis	2	Spermatic cords	2
Seminal vesicles	2	Ejaculatory ducts	2	Prostate gland	1
Urethra & Penis	1

Q3. Solve any four of the following: 12

Give differences between striated and smooth muscles. (any 6 points, 3 marks)

Sr. No	Skeletal muscle	Smooth muscle
1.	It is also known as striated Muscle	Non‐ striated muscle
2.	It is less extensible	It is more extensible
3.	The fibres (cell) are cylindrical and has many nuclei	The cells are spindle shaped with only one central nucleus
4.	They are under the control of our will. (voluntary)	They are not under the control of our will.(involuntary)
5.	The fibrous tissue enclosing the whole muscle extends beyond the fibres to become the tendon which attaches the muscle to the bone or skin.	Bundles of fibres form sheets of muscle.
6.	There is distinct sarcolemma	No distinct sarcolemma
7.	Present in tongue, arms or hands, legs, etc	Present in oesophagus, stomach, intestine, etc

b) Define: ( 1 mark each)

Gout: Inflammation of joints due to deposition of sodium urate crystals in the joints.
Arthritis: Chronic disease that results in pain and restricted movement of

Sprain: Joint injury in which some of the fibres of supporting ligament are damaged OR If a ligament is stretched or torn; the injury is called a

c) Name different type of blood group. Explain the term universal donor and universal recipient. (name 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)

Different blood groups are: A, B, AB and O

Blood group “O” is called as Universal donor and Blood group “AB” is called as

Universal recipient.

Individuals have different antigens on the surface of their RBCs. These antigens determine their blood groups.

Blood group ‘O’ has neither A nor B antigen on their cell membrane. There will be no agglutination and thus blood can be safely transfused into A, B, AB and O. but can receive from only O.Therefore, blood group O is called universal donor.

Whereas blood group AB has neither antiA nor antiB antibodies. Transfusion of any group into these individuals is safe since there are no antibodies to react with them. But can donate only to AB. Hence it is called as universal recipient.

d) Define cardiac cycle. Write various events in cardiac cycle. (def 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)

Cardiac cycle: The events which occur in the heart during the circulation of blood during each heart beat is called cardiac cycle OR The series of events during one heart beat is known as cardiac cycle.

Events in cardiac cycle:

Atrial systole (0.1 sec)
Ventricular systole (0.3 sec)
Complete cardiac diastole (0.4 sec)

Description of cardiac cycle (2 marks)

The superior & inferior vena cava transport the deoxygenated blood into right atrium. At the same time four pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood into the left atrium. The impulses from the SA node spreads over the atria, atria contracts, the AV valves open and & blood flows to ventricles. ( atrial systole-0.1 sec)

When the wave of contraction reaches AV node, it is stimulated & emits impulses which spreads over AV bundle, bundle branches & purkinje fibres resulting in contraction of ventricles pumping the blood into pulmonary artery & the aorta. (ventricular systole 0.3 sec). After the contraction of the ventricles there is complete cardiac diastole(0.4 sec) when both atria & ventricles relax. After this the next cycle begins.

e) What is reflex action? Draw a well-labelled diagram of reflex arc. (Reflex action 1 ½ marks, diagram 1 ½ marks)

Reflex action is an automatic motor response given by the spinal cord to the sensory stimulus without involving brain in action. They are a part of defensive mechanisms of the body.

Important reflex actions are:

Quick closing of an eyelid if eye is
Sudden withdrawal of hand if fingers touch something
Quick recovery of the balance of the body to prevent falling after a
Sudden coughing attack if a food particle is

Diagram of reflex arc:

f) Mention layers of epidermis of skin. State functions of skin. ( names of layers 1 mark, any 4 functions 2 marks)

Layers of epidermis:

Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum and stratum granulosum & stratum germinativum Functions of skin:

Protection – It forms the water proof layer & protects the inner delicate structures. It acts as the barrier against the invasion of the microbes, chemicals &dehydration. The melanin pigment protects against the harmful UV
Regulation of body temp.- The temp. is constant at 36.8^o When the metabolic rate of the body increases the body temp increases & vice versa. To ensure constant body temp, a balance between heat production & heat loss is maintained by the skin.
Formation of vit. D.- 7-dehydroxycholesterol is present in the skin. The UV light from the sun converts it to vit.
Sensation – It contains nerve endings of many sensory nerves which act as organ of sensation of touch, temp, pressure and
Absorption- Some drugs & chemicals are absorbed through the
Excretion- Skin is a minor excretory organ & excretes NaCl, urea & sub. like garlic.

Q4. Solve any four of the following: 12

Define and give normal values: (1 mark for each)
Tidal volume: It is the volume of air moved in & out of lungs during normal breathing. Normal value is 500

Inspiratory reserve volume: It is the amount of air that can be breathed in and above the tidal volume by the deepest possible inspiration. Normal value is 1800 – 3000

Residual volume: It is the volume of air remaining in lungs after forced Normal value is 1.2 L in males and 1.1 L in females.

Give physiology of neuromuscular transmission. ( 3 marks)

When a nerve impulse reaches neuromuscular junction, passage of action potential over the sole feet causes the vesicles of acetylcholine to rupture into the synaptic cleft. The acetylcholine acts on the cell membrane to increase its permeability.

This allows spontaneous leakage of Na causing endplate potential. When the endplate potential increases, it stimulates the entire muscle fibre causing an action potential to travel in both directions along the fibre. When the action potential spread to inside of muscle fibre then Ca ions are released. This causes contraction of muscle fibres. Immediately after action potential is over, the previously released Ca ions recombine with reticulum and the muscle contraction stops.

The enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the synaptic cleft. causes hydrolysis of acetylcholine. The muscle fibre is repolaised again to receive successive stimuli.

d) Describe the structure of stomach. ( str 2 marks, diag 1 mark)

Stomach is a J-shaped dilated portion of the alimentary canal. It is continuous with the oesophagus at cardiac sphincter and with duodenum at pyloric sphincter. It has 2 curvatures – lesser curvature and greater curvature. The stomach is divided into three regions- fundus, body & antrum. There are three layers of smooth muscle fibres outer longitudinal, the middle circular layer & the inner oblique fibres. This helps the churning movement & peristaltic movement.

Diagram

e) What is endocrine and exocrine gland? Name the endocrine glands. (each def 1 mark, any 4 endocrine glands 1 mark)

Endocrine glands are ductless glands which release their secretions (hormones) directly into the blood.

Exocrine gland: The glands that discharge their secretions through the duct are known as exocrine glands.

Endocrine glands: Pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, pancreas (islets of Langerhans). adrenal glands, pineal gland, testes in male and ovaries in female.

f) Define menstruation. Explain proliferative phase of menstruation.(def 1 mark, explanation 2 marks)

Menstruation: This is the series of events occurring regularly in females every 26-30 days throughout the child bearing age. The cycle consists of menstrual phase for 4 days, proliferative phase for 10 days & secretary phase for 14 days.

Proliferative phase: It is characterized by release of oestrogen by the maturing ovarian follicle under the influence of FSH from the anterior pituitary. Oestrogen stimulates the proliferation of the endometrium in preparation of the fertilized ovum. The endometrium becomes thicker by rapid cell multiplication and this is accompanied by an increase in the number of mucus-secreting glands and blood capillaries. This phase lasts for 10 days and stops when ovulation occurs and oestrogen production is inhibited i.e. when the ovarian follicle ruptures.

Q.5 Solve any four of the following: (12 marks, 03 marks each)

State the factors which accelerate and retard the clotting of blood. (3 marks, 1.5 marks each)

There are various factors which accelerate and retard the clotting of blood.

(1) Factors accelerating clotting are( any 3 points, 1.5 marks)

During menstruation and parturition

Injury to the walls of the blood vessels: An injury in the form of cut bleeds more freely than the injury by the
The venom of viper snakes

Higher temperature (above 46 ⁰ C)

Presence of calcium salts

(2) Factors retarding clotting are (any 3 points, 1.5 marks):

In clinical condition like haemophilia, liver disease, afibrinogenemia, Christmas disease,

Removal calcium ions from the blood by addition of sodium or potassium or citrate

ions.

(c ) Calcium deficiency in blood

(d)Lower temperature: However, lower temperature causes contraction of blood vessels. ( e)Deficiency of vitamin K

(b) Describe how circulation of blood takes place through heart chambers. (3 marks)

The superior vena cava (for upper body) and inferior vena cava (for lower body) receive deoxygenated /impure blood from various part of the body through different veins. This deoxygenated/ impure blood they pour into the right atrium of heart. The blood from right atrium enters the right ventricle through a tricuspid valve, which prevent back flow of blood from ventricle into atrium.

The deoxygenated/ impure blood from right ventricle is forced into pulmonary artery through pulmonary valve. The pulmonary arteries divide into two branches each enters the right and left lungs. In the lungs, the red blood cells (RBCs) release carbon dioxide and absorbs oxygen. This oxygenated blood from right and left lungs is collected by four pulmonary veins and poured into left atrium. From left atrium this blood enters into left ventricle through bicuspid valve which prevents back flow of blood into left atrium.This oxygenated blood from left ventricle is forced into the aorta through aortic valve which prevent back flow of blood into left ventricle.

Give the various functions of medulla oblongata. (03 marks, 1mark for each function The vital centres consisting of group of cells associated with autonomic reflex activity lie in Medulla oblongata. They are,

Cardiac centre– The cardiac centre controls the rate and force of cardiac contraction and blood

Respiratory centre – The respiratory centre controls the rate and depth of respiration. Nerve impulses pass to the phrenic and intercostal muscles which stimulate the contraction of diaphragm and intercostal muscles, thus initiating
Vasomotor centre – This controls the diameter of blood vessels especially small arteries and arterioles.
Reflex centre – When irritating substance are present in stomach or respiratory tract, nerve impulse pass on to the medulla oblongata stimulating the reflex centre which initiate reflex actions like vomiting, sneezing and

(d) Explain retina of eye. (3marks)

Retina is the innermost layer of the eye. It gets stimulated by the light rays. It is composed of several layers of nerve cell body & the axons. There are light sensitive cells mainly of two types: the rods and
The entire retina contains about 7 million cones and 75 to 150 million

Rods function mainly in dim light and provide black-and-white vision, The rods have rhodopsin or visual purple is photosensitive pigment. It gets bleached with light & gets regenerated by vit. A. The rods are present more in the periphery of the
Cones sensitive to bright light & colour. cone opsins (also known as photopsins or iodopsin) present in cone cells, are used in colour
The central retina has macula lutea or yellow spot made up of only cone cells. It has central depression called fovea centralis.All the nerve fibres of retina form the optic nerve. The small area of the retina where the optic nerve leave the eye is known as optic disc or blind spot as no light sensitive cells are present here.

(e) Define nephritis. Give function of kidney. (Definition 1 mark, any 4 functions 2 marks)

Nephritis: Nephritis refers to inflammation of one or both kidneys due to infection or autoimmune disease.

Functions of kidney are:

Formation of urine –Each kidney consist of nephron which filter waste product from blood & helps in urine ,
Maintenance of acid base balance it helps maintaining pH by excretion of H⁺ ions & reabsorption of HCO₃^–
Maintenance of electrolyte balance
Maintenance of blood pressure. it regulates B.P. by Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone system
Maintenance of water Balance.it helps in maintaining water balance with the help of
Formation of erythropoietin hormone for erythropoeisis

(f) Define (3 marks, 1 mark for each definition)

Mastication: It is the process by which food is chewed and mixed with saliva to form a soft mass or bolus which is swallowed. OR Mastication means chewing process takes place in mouth cavity.
Chyme: The thick semisolid mass of partially digested food that is passed from the stomach to the
ii) Digestion: The conversion of complex food ( carbohydrate , proteins & fats) into simpler form (glucose, amino acids & fatty acid) by mechanical breakdown & chemical digestion so that it is easily absorbed into the blood and utilized for energy.

Q.6 Solve any four of the following: (16 marks, 4 marks each)

State eight (8) functions of liver. (0.5 marks for each function)

Functions of liver

Secretion of bile: Bile salts are helpful in digestion and absorption of fats by its emulsification.
Glycogenic function: The hepatic cells by the action of enzymes convert glucose into glycogen and it is then stored in the
Formation of urea: Hepatic cells by the action of the enzyme cause deamination of amino acid, i.e. amine group is set free which forms
Metabolism of fat: Whenever energy is needed, the saturated stored fat is converted to a form in which it can be used to provide
Formation of RBCs in foetal
Destruction of RBCs forming bile pigments and
Formation of plasma
Formation of heparin, a natural anticoagulant in the
Storage of iron and vitamin B
Maintenance of body temperature: As a number of chemical reactions occur in the liver, heat is generated which is helpful in maintaining body
Excretion of toxic substances: The toxic substances entering the body through alimentary canal are destroyed in

OR

Carbohydrate metabolism: It helps in maintaining plasma glucose level with the help of insulin &
Fat metabolism: Stored fat can be converted to a form in which it can be used by the tissue to provide

Protein metabolism: Deamination of amino -removes nitrogenous portion from amino acid not required for formation of new protein. Urea is formed from the nitrogenous portion which is excreted in urine. Break down of nucleic acids to form uric acid which is excreted in urine. Transamination: Removes the nitrogenous portion of amino acid & attaches it to carbohydrate molecule forming new non-essential amino acid. .

Synthesis of plasma protein & most blood clotting factors from amino
Breakdown of RBCs & defense against This is carried out by Kupffer cells.
Detoxification of drugs & noxious

Inactivation of hormones
Production of heat

Secretion of bile
Storage of glycogen, iron, copper, & water fat soluble vit-A, D,E, K, soluble vit. Like B12.

(b) What is hepatic portal circulation? Give its importance. (4marks; circulation 3 marks, importance 1 mark)

The portal circulation (3 marks)

In all parts of the body, the venous blood passes from the tissues to the heart by the direct route.

But, in the portal circulation, venous blood from the capillary bed of the abdominal parts, the spleen & the pancreas passes to the liver via the portal vein. The portal vein is formed by union of gastric vein from stomach, superior & inferior mesenteric veins from small and large intestine, splenic vein from spleen & cystic vein from gall bladder. The blood

passes through the secondary capillary bed, the hepatic sinusoid in the liver before entering the general circulation via the inferior vena cava.

Importance of portal circulation (1mark)

Blood with the high concentration of nutrients absorbed from the stomach & intestine goes to liver first. In the liver certain modifications takes place including the blood nutrient level. The venous blood then leaves liver via hepatic vein & joins the inferior vena cava.

(c) State functions of Semen and Placenta (4 marks, 2 marks each) Functions of Semen: (2 marks)

Increase motility and fertility of spermatozoa.

Semen is slightly alkaline, to neutralize the acidity of

Prostaglandin present causes contraction of

It contains nutrients to nourish and support the sperm during their journey through the female reproductive

Functions of placenta: (2 marks)

To provide the foetus with nourishment and removal of waste material from the

To act as the foetal lung by providing oxygenation of the fetal blood

The placenta also acts as a barrier in preventing certain micro-organisms of disease reaching the fetus thus protects the
The placenta helps the ovaries in the production of estrogen & progesterone hormones necessary for the continuation and maintenance of

(d)What is sensory and motor neuron? (1+1 marks). Draw a well labeled diagram of typical neuron (2 marks).

Sensory neuron (1 mark): They carry information from the body to the spinal cord. The impulses may then pass to the brain or to connector neurons of reflex arcs in the spinal cord.

Motor neuron (1 mark): They originate in the brain, spinal cord and autonomic ganglia. They transmit impulses to the effector organs; muscles and glands.

(e) Write the effect of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on:(4 marks, 2marks each )

Pupils:(0.5 + 0.5 marks)

Sympathetic stimulation: Dilation of pupils causing mydriasis.

Parasymp. stimulation: Constriction of pupils causing miosis.

(ii) Bronchioles 🙁 0.5+0.5 marks)

Sympathetic stimulation: Bronchodilation allowing greater amount of air to enter the lungs at each inspiration.

Parasymp. stimulation: Bronchoconstriction (Broncho-spasm)

Blood vessel (1+1 marks) Sympathetic stimulation: Coronary artery: Vasodilation Skeletal blood vessels: Vasodilation

Other blood vessels: Vasoconstriction. Parasympathetic stimulation: Coronary artery: Vasoconstriction Skeletal blood vessels: Vasoconstriction Other blood vessels: Vasodilation

(e) Explain the role of insulin and glucagon in the body. (4 marks, 2 marks each) Role of insulin (3 marks):

Role of insulin

It increases the uptake of glucose by the

Increases the conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver & skeletal

It increases the uptake of amino acids by the

It promotes the synthesis of fatty acids & storage of fats in adipose tissue
decreases
Prevents breakdown of protein, fat & gluconeogenesis

Role of glucagon (1 mark): Its function is to increase blood sugar level. Whenever the blood sugar level falls below the normal the glycogen stored in the liver is broken down to glucose by the hormone glucagon.

Thus the two hormones help to maintain the blood sugar level constant.

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Pharma QA Job Interview Guide |+| Quality Assurance Interview Questions – Pharmaceutical Industry

July 26, 2020July 30, 2018 by Renee

Pharma QA Interview Question And Answer are here presented for you to help you to crack Quality Assurance Interview in Pharmaceutical manufacturing companies. Definition Of Quality Assurance along with its use In Pharma Industry are listed here below.

Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 1

Sample QA Interview Question: Define quality assurance
Ans) QA is a broad range of concept contains all the matters that individually or collectively effect the quality of a product. QA mainly concentrated on planning and documenting the procedures to assure the quality of the product.

Sample QA Interview Question: What needs to be checked during inprocess QA checks?
A.
a.) Environmental Monitoring
b.) Measured values obtained from the process equipment (ex:temperature,RPM etc.)
c.) Measured values obtained from persons (ex:timmings,entries etc.)
d.) Process attributes (Ex:weight,hardness,friability etc.)

Sample QA Interview Question: What precautions shall be taken while collecting inprocess samples ?
A. While collecting inprocess samples, avoid contamination of the product being sampled (Don’t collect samples with bare hands) & avoid contamination of sample taken.

Sample QA Interview Question: In a tablet manufacturing facility ‘positive’ pressure is maintained in processing area or service corridors?
A. In tablet manufacturing facilities, pressure gradients are maintained to avoid cross contamination of products through air. Usually processing areas are maintained under positive pressure with respect to service corridors.

Sample QA Interview Question: If sticking observed during tablet compression what may the probable reason for the same?
A.
1.If the granules are not dried properly sticking can
occur.
2.Too little or improper lubrication can also leads to
sticking.
3.Sticking can occur because of too much binder or
hygroscopic granular.

Sample QA Interview Question: What checks shall be carried out, while calibrating DT apparatus?
A. While calibrating DT apparatus, following checks shall be performed.
1.) Number of strokes per minute (Limit:29-32 cycles/min)
2.) Temperature by probe & standard thermometer
(Limit: 37 ± 1 OC).
3). Distance travelled by basket (Limit:53 -57mm)

Explain the difference between QC and QA?

Ans) QA provides the confidence that a product will full fill the quality requirements. QC determines and measures the product quality level.

QA Interview Question: . Expand cGMP and what is the difference between GMP and cGMP?

Ans) cGMP known as Current Good Manufacturing Practices. It is a USFDA regulations to assure proper design , manufacturing and control of manufacturing processes and services.

GMP-Good Manufacturing Practices. These are the standard guidelines given by Food and Drug administration to make sure that a product is manufactured with safety and quality. c in cGMP means current. It refers to recent and advance updates to these standard guidelines. cGMP is up to date standard reference guidelines.

Pharma QA Job Interview Guide |+| Quality Assurance Interview Questions – Pharmaceutical Industry

Pharma QA Job Interview Q&A: Tell me any five countries with their regulatory authorities?
Ans) India – Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)

USA – United States Food and Drug Administation (USFDA)

UK – Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)

Japan- Ministry of Health Labour and Welfare (MHLW)

Australia- Therapeutics Goods Administration (TGA)

Sample QA Interview Question: What is In process checks?
A. In process checks are checks performed during an activity,In order to monitor and,if necessary,to adjust the process to ensure that product confirms to its specification.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the difference between disintegration and dissolution?
A. Disintegration is a disaggregation process, in which an oral dosage form falls apart in to smaller aggregates.(Disintegration time is the ‘break up’ time of a solid dosage form).

Where as dissolution is a process by which solid substance enters in the solvent to yield a solution.It is controlled by the affinity between the solid substance and the solvent.

In other word disintegration is a subset of dissolution.

Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we calibrate a qualified equipment/instrument on definite intervals?
A. An equipment or instrument can ‘drift’ out of accuracy between the time of qualification and actual use.So it is recommended to calibrate and recalibrate the measuring devices and instruments on predetermined time intervals, to gain confidence on the accuracy of the data.

Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A: What is room temperature?

Ans) 25 degree centigrade

Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A: What is the Ultraviolet(UV) and visible spectroscopy range?

Ans) UV spectroscopy range 200-400 nm, Visible spectroscopy range 400 nm to 800nm.

Pharma Quality Assurance Interview Q&A: What is the use of UV Spectroscopy?

Ans) Spectroscopy used for detecting the functional groups, impurities. Qualitative and quantitative analysis can be done.

Pharma QA Job Interview Guide Part 2

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative analysis?

Ans) Qualitative analysis involves identification of the compound or chemical based on their chemical(absorption, emission )or physical properties(e.g Melting point, boiling point).

Quantitative analysis involves estimation or determination of concentration or amount of the chemical compounds or components.

Q5) Explain the principle of Ultraviolet spectroscopy?

Ans) UV spectroscopy uses light in the UV part of electromagnetic spectrum. UV absorption spectra arises in which molecule or atoms outer electrons absorb energy, undergoes transition from lower energy level to higher energy level. For each molecule, absorbance at wavelength is specific.

Q6) Explain about Beer Lamberts law?

Ans) It states that the intensity of monochromatic light absorbed by a substance dissolved in a fully transmitting solvent is directly proportional to the substance concentration and the path length of the light through the solution.

Q7) Explain the Infrared spectroscopy principle?

Ans) When a molecule absorbs the Infrared radiation, it vibrates and gives rise to packed Infrared(IR) absorption spectrum. This IR spectrum is specific for every different molecule absorbing the IR radiation, useful for its identification.

Q8) What is the body temperature?

Ans) 37 oCelsius or 98.6 oF

v Define pH? What is the pH of blood?
Ans) pH -Negative logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration. Blood pH-7.35 to 7.45.

Q10) Expand LCMS, HPLC,UPLC, TLC and GC?

Ans) LCMS- Liquid Chromatography

HPLC- High Performance Liquid Chromatography,

UPLC- Ultra High Performance Liquid Chomatography,

TLC- Thin Layer Chomatography,

GC- Gas Chromatography.

qc pharma interview questions for freshers

Q11) What is the HPLC principle?

Ans) It is a technique used for separating the mixture of components into individual components based on adsorption, partition, ion exchange and size exclusion principles. Stationary phase and mobile phase used in it. HPLC used for identification, quantification and purification of components form a mixture.

Q12) Explain HPLC instrumentation?

Ans) It involves solvent system, pump, Sample injector, HPLC columns, Detectors and Recorder. Firstly, solvent(mobile phase) is degassed for eliminating the bubbles. It is passed through the pump with a uniform pressure. The liquid sample is injected into the mobile phase flow stream. It passes through the stationary phase identified by the detectors and recorded.

Q13) In reverse phase HPLC, which type of stationary phase is used and give example?

Ans) Non polar stationary phase used

Ex: Silica gel C-18

Q14) What are the detectors used in HPLC?

Ans) UV detector, IR detector, Fluorescence detector, Mass spectroscopy, LC MS etc.

Q15) How to calculate Retention factor in paper chromatography?
Ans) Rf = Distance travelled by solute/ Distance travelled by solvent.

Q16) Define molarity?

Ans) Number of moles of solute per litre solution. Denoted with “M”

Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 2

Q17) Define Molality?

Ans) Number of moles of solute per kilogram solvent. Denoted with “m”

Q18) Define Normality?

Ans) Number of Number of moles equivalent per litre solution.

Q19) Molecular weight of oxygen?

Ans) 16

Difference between humidity and relative humidity?

Ans) Humidity – Measure of amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere.

Relative humidity- Water vapour amount exists in air expressed as a percentage of the amount needed for saturation at the same temperature.

Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we consider three consecutive runs/batches for process validation? Why not two or four?
A. The number of batches produced in the validation exercise should be sufficient to allow the normal extent of variation and trends to be established and to provide sufficient data for evaluation and reproducibility.
· First batch quality is accidental (co-incidental),
· Second batch quality is regular (accidental),
· Third batch quality is validation(conformation).
In 2 batch we cannot assure the reproducibility of data,4 batches can be taken but the time and cost are involved.

Sample QA Interview Question: Explain about revalidation criteria of AHU system?
A. AHU system shall be revalidated periodically as mentioned in the regulatory standards. AHU shall be revalidated in following cases also.
· When basic design of AHU is changed,
· When clean room volume is changed,
· When new equipment is installed
· When a construction is carried out, that calls for reconstruction of AHU system.

Sample QA Interview Question: What needs to be checked during AHU validation?
A. During AHU validation, following tests shall be carried out
· Filter efficiency test,
· Air velocity & number of air changes,
· Air flow pattern (visualization)
· Differential pressure, temperature and RH
· Static condition area qualification
· Dynamic condition qualification
· Non-viable count
· Microbial monitoring
· Area recovery and power failure study.

Sample QA Interview Question: Position of oblong tablets to be placed in hardness tester to determine the hardness? Lengthwise / widthwise?
A. Position of oblong tablets should be length wise because the probability of breakage is more in this position.

Sample QA Interview Question: Explain in detail about qualification of pharmaceutical water system?
A. Qualification of pharmaceutical water system involves three phases
· Phase -1
· Phase -2
· Phase -3
Phase -1
A test period of 2-4 weeks should be spent for monitoring the system intensively. During this period the system should operate continuously without failure or performance deviation.Water cannot be used for pharmaceutical manufacturing in this phase.The following should be included in testing approach.
· Under take chemical & microbiological testing in accordance with a defined plan.
· Sample incoming feed water daily to verify its quality.
· Sample each step of purification process daily.
· Sample each point of use daily.
· Develop appropriate operating ranges.
· Demonstrate production and delivery of product water of required quantity and quality.
· Use and refine the SOP’s for operation,maintenance,sanitization and trouble shooting.
· Verify provisional alert and action levels.
· Develop and refine test failure procedure.

Phase -2
A further test period of 2-4 weeks. Sampling scheme will be same as Phase – 1.Water can be used for manufacturing process in this phase.
Approach should also
· Demonstrate consistent operation within established ranges.
· Demonstrate consistent production & delivery of water of required quality and quantity.

Phase – 3
Phase 3 runs for one year after satisfactory completion of phase-2.Water can be used for manufacturing process during this process.

Objectives & Features of Phase -3
· Demonstrate extensive reliable performance.
· Ensure that seasonal variations are evaluated.
· The sample locations, sampling frequencies and test should be reduced to the normal routine pattern based on established procedures proven during Phase -1 & phase – 2.

Sample QA Interview Question: What are the recommended environmental monitoring limits for microbial contamination?

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the difference between calibration and Validation?
A. Calibration is a demonstration that, a particular
Instrument or device produces results with in specified limits by comparisons with those produced by a reference or traceable standard over an appropriate range of measurements.

Where as Validation is a documented program that provides high degree of assurance that a specific process, method or system consistently produces a result meeting pre-determined acceptance criteria.

In calibration performance of an instrument or device is comparing against a reference standard. But in validation such reference standard is not using.

Calibration ensures that instrument or measuring devices producing accurate results. Whereas validation demonstrates that a process, equipment, method or system produces consistent results (in other words, it ensures that uniforms batches are produced).

Sample QA Interview Question: Briefly explain about ICH climatic zones for stability testing & long term storage conditions?
A.ICH STABILITY ZONES
Zone
Type of Climate
Zone I
Temperate zone
Zone II
Mediterranean/subtropical zone
Zone III
Hot dry zone
Zone IVa
Hot humid/tropical zone
Zone IVb
ASEAN testing conditions hot/higher humidity

Long term Storage condition
Climatic Zone
Temperature
Humidity
Minimum Duration
Zone I
21ºC ± 2ºC
45% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Zone II
25ºC ± 2ºC
60% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Zone III
30ºC ± 2ºC
35% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Zone IV
30ºC ± 2ºC
65% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Zone IVb
30ºC ± 2ºC
75% rH ± 5% rH
12 Months
Refrigerated
5ºC ± 3ºC
No Humidity
12 Months
Frozen
-15ºC ± 5ºC
No Humidity
12 Months

Sample QA Interview Question: What is bracketing & matrixing in stability testing?
A.Both Matrixing & Bracketing’s are reduced stability testing designs
Bracketing
The design of a stability schedule, such that only samples of extremes of certain design factors (ex:strength,package size) are tested at all time points as in full design.The designs assumes that the stability of any intermediate level is represented by the stability of extremes tested.
Matrixing
The design of a stability schedule, such that a selected subset of possible samples for all factor combinations is tested at a specified time point.At a subsequent time point another subset of samples for all factor combination is tested.The design assumes that the stability of each subset samples tested represents the stability of all samples at a given time point.
There for a given time point other than initial & final ones not every batch on stability needs to be tested.

Sample QA Interview Question:What are the common variables in the manufacturing of tablets?
A.
· Particle size of the drug substance
· Bulk density of drug substance/excipients
· Powder load in granulator
· Amount & concentration of binder
· Mixer speed & mixing timings
· Granulation moisture content
· Milling conditions
· Lubricant blending times
· Tablet hardness
· Coating solution spray rate

Sample QA Interview Question: Whether bracketing & validation concept can be applied in process validation?
A.Both Matrixing & Bracketing’s can be applied in validation studies.
Matrixing
Different strength of same product
Different size of same equipment
Bracketting – Evaluating extremes
Largest and smallest fill volumes
Fastest and slowest operating speeds

1. What is an SOP ?

A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) is a certain type of document that describes in a step-by-step outline form how to perform a particular task or operation. Everyone in a company must follow the same procedures to assure that tasks are performed consistently and correctly. Most companies have a wide variety of SOPs that describe how to do different tasks. In many companies technicians and operators are trained in how to follow individual SOPs and their training record specifies which SOPs they are trained on and are authorized to use.

2. What is 21 CFR part 11 ?

Title 21 CFR Part 11 of the Code of Federal Regulations deals with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) guidelines on electronic records and electronic signatures in the United States. Part 11, as it is commonly called, defines the criteria under which electronic records and electronic signatures are considered to be trustworthy, reliable and equivalent to paper records

What are user requirements ?

User Requirements Specification describes what users require from the System. User requirement specifications are written early in the validation process, typically before the system is created. It is written by the System Owner and End Users, with input from Quality Assurance. Requirements outlined in the URS are usually tested in the Performance Qualification. User Requirements Specifications are not intended to be a technical document; readers with only a general knowledge of the system should be able to understand the requirements outlined in the URS.

4. What is a validation plan ?

Validation Plans define the scope and goals of a validation project. Validation plans are written before a validation project and are specific to a single validation project. Validation Plans can include:

Deliverables (Documents) to be generated during the validation process
Resources/Departments/Personnel to participate in the validation project
Time-Line for completing the validation project

5. What is an IQ document ?

Installation Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify the proper installation of a System. The requirement to properly install the system was defined in the Design Specification. Installation Qualifications must be performed before completing Operational Qualification or Performance Qualification.

6. What is an OQ Document ?

Operational Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify the proper functioning of a System. The operational qualification tests requirements defined in the Functional Requirements. Operational Qualifications are usually performed before the system is released for use.

7. What is a PQ Document ?

Performance Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify that a System performs as expected under simulated real-world conditions. The performance qualification tests requirements that were defined in the User Requirement Specification (or possibly the Functional Requirements). Due to the nature of performance qualifications, these tests are sometime conducted with power users as the system is being released.

8. What is a Validation Summary Report ?

Validation Summary Reports provide an overview of the entire validation project. When regulatory auditors review validation projects, they typically begin by reviewing the summary report. The validation summary report should include:

A description of the validation project
All test cases performed, including if those test cases passed without issue
All deviations reported, including how those deviations were resolved

9. What is a Change Request ?

Change Control is a general term describing the process of managing how changes are introduced into a controlled System. In validation, this means how changes are made to the validated system. Change control is required to demonstrate to regulatory authorities that validated systems remain under control after system changes. Change Control systems are a favorite target of regulatory auditors because they vividly demonstrate an organization capacity to control its systems.

Sample QA Interview Question: Why water for pharmaceutical use is always kept in close loop in continuous circulation ?
A. Water is a best medium for many microorganisms, microorganism can be a highly pathogenic which causes serious diseases(many diseases are water born), these pathogens infect after consumption of contaminated water, microorganisms tend to settle on a surface if water is allowed to stand in a stagnant position for few hours, these settled microorganism form a film over the surface of vessel and piping, such film formed by microorganisms is also called as biofilm, biofilms are very difficult of remove, once a biofilm is formed at a particular point then that point may form a biofilm again even after cleaning very easily as seed from this point is may not completely get removed effectively.

Biofilms then can become a source of microbial contaminations; therefore purified water after collection in a distribution system is always kept in a closed loop in a continuous circulation.
A continuous circulation is also not enough at some points, therefore it is aided with high temperature range from 65 °C to 80°C, a minimum temperature of 65 °C is considered a self sanitizing, but better assurance is obtained with a temperature of 80°C .

Purified water collected should be stored in a stainless still vessel which must facilitate distribution to the point of use in a closed loop of continuous circulation, tank should be made of corrosion free material of construction, and must facilitate sanitization and easy cleaning.

Quality Assurance Pharma Interview Questions – Part 3

Sample QA Interview Question: Water for pharmaceutical use shall be free cations,anions and other impurities why ?

A.Water for pharmaceutical must be free from inorganic as well as organic impurities, minerals, and heavy metals. Some impurities like calcium, magnesium, ferrous are responsible for degradation of drug molecule, many cations like ferrous and calcium magnesium act as catalysts in degradation reaction of drug molecule, anions like chloride are highly active they participate in nucliophylic substitution reactions, where in they break a double bond between -C=C- in to a single bond as CL –CH-CH2- , which a reason why we observe that color dies tend to fed in presence of chlorine as most of the dies used are diazo compounds which has plenty of places for nucliophylic substitution reactions, which is also a reason why stability of drug is drastically affected in presence of cations and anions from mineral origin present in water.

Sample QA Interview Question: Water for pharmaceutical use shall be free heavy metals why ?
A. Heavy metals like lead and arsenic are highly cumulative neurotoxic metals, heavy metals are not eliminated out of our body easily like other drugs and molecules but heavy metals bind with proteins and tend to get accumulated in fatty tissues, nerve tissue is most likely to get damaged by heavy metals, heavy metal causes nervous tissue damage there for water must be free from heavy metals.

Sample QA Interview Question: Brazil falls under which climatic zone ?
A. Zone IVB (30 degree celsius and 75% relative humidity)

Sample QA Interview Question: Change in the size or shape of the original container requires any stability study?
A. Change in the size or shape of the original container may not necessitate the initiation of new stability study.

Sample QA Interview Question: Forced degradation(stress testing) and accelerated stability testing are same?
A. Forced degradation and stress testing are not same. Stress testing is likely to be carried out on a single batch of the drug substance. The testing should include the effect of temperatures (in 10°C increments (e.g., 50°C, 60°C) above that for accelerated testing), humidity (e.g., 75 percent relative humidity or greater) where appropriate, oxidation, and photolysis on the drug substance. The testing should also evaluate the susceptibility of the drug substance to hydrolysis across a wide range of pH values when in solution or suspension. Photo stability testing should be an integral part of stress testing.

Sample QA Interview Question: According to WHO guidelines what is the storage condition of climatic zone IVa and zone IVb?
A. Zone IV a: 30°C and 65% RH (hot and humid countries)
Zone IV b: 30°C and 75% RH (hot and very humid countries

Sample QA Interview Question: Countries comes under climatic zone IVb?
A.Brazil,Cuba,China,Brunei,Cambodia,Indonesia,Malaysia,Myanmar,Philippines,Singapore,Thailand

Pharmaceutical Industry Interview Questions pdf

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the purpose of stress testing in stability studies?
A. Stress testing of the drug substance can help identify the likely degradation products, which can in turn help establish the degradation pathways and the intrinsic stability of the molecule and validate the stability indicating power of the analytical procedures used. The nature of the stress testing will depend on the individual drug substance and the type of drug product involved.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the formula for calculating number of air changes in an area?
A. Number of air changes/hour in an area is

= Total Room Airflow In CFM x 60
Total Volume of room in cubic feet
For calculating Total Room Airflow in CFM, first calculate air flow of individual filter. Formula is given below.

Air flow (in cfm) = Avg.air velocity in feet/Minute x Effective area of filter

Then find Total air flow. Formula is
Total Air flow = Sum of air flow of individual filter.

Air flow Velocity can be measured with the help of Anemometer.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is dead leg?
A. A dead leg is defined as an area in a piping system where liquid can become stagnant and not be exchanged during flushing.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended bio burden limits of purified water & WFI?
A. Purified water has a recommended bioburden limit of 100 CFU/mL, and water for injection (WFI) has a recommended bio burden limit of 10 CFU/100 mL.
Sample QA Interview Question: Brief about ICH stabilty guidelines?
A. Q1A- Stability testing of new drug substance & products
Q1B- Photo stability testing of new drug substances & products
Q1C-Stability testing of new dosage forms
Q1D-Bracketing & Matrixing designs for testing of new drug substances and products
Q1E-Evaluation of stability data
Q1F-Stability data package for registration applications in climatic zone III & IV (Withdrawed)

Sample QA Interview Question: What is significant changes in stability testing?
A.
1. A 5% change in assay for initial value.

2. Any degradation products exceeds its acceptance
criterion.

3. Failure to meet acceptance criterion for
appearance,physical artributes and functionality
test.

4. Failure to meet acceptance criteria for dissolution
for 12 units.

Sample QA Interview Question: If leak test fail during in process checks what needs to be done ?
A.
Immediately stop packing process and check for
1.Sealing temperature
2.Verify for any possible changes like foil width,knurling etc.
3.Check & quarantine the isolated quantity of packed goods from last passed inprocess.
4.Collect random samples & do retest.
5.Blisters from the leak test passed containers shall allow to go further and rest must be deblistered/defoiled accordingly.

Sample QA Interview Question: How many Tablets shall be taken for checking friability?
A. For tablets with unit mass equal or less than 650 mg, take sample of whole tablets corresponding to 6.5g.For tablets with unit mass more than 650mg,take a sample of 10 whole tablets.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the formula for calculating weight loss during friability test?
A. %Weight loss = Initial Weight – Final Weight X 100
Initial Weight

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the pass or fail criteria for friability test?
A. Generally the test is run for once.If any cracked,cleaved or broken tablets present in the tablet sample after tumbling,the tablets fails the test.If the results are doubtful,or weight loss is grater than the targeted value,the test should be repeated twice and the mean of the three tests determined.A mean weight loss from the three samples of not more than 1.0% is considered acceptable for most of the products.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the standard number of rotations used for friability test?
A. 100 rotations

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the fall height of the tablets in the friabilator during friability testing?
A. 6 inches.Tablets falls from 6 inches eight in each turn within the apparatus.

Sample QA Interview Question: Why do we check hardness during inprocess checks?
A. To determine need for the pressure adjustments on the tableting machine. Hardness can affect the disintegration time.If tablet is too hard, it may not disintegrate in the required period of time. And if tablet is too soft it will not withstand handling and subsequent processing such as coating,packing etc.

Sample QA Interview Question: What are the factors which influence tablet hardness?
A.
1.compression force
2.Binder quantity(More binder more hardness)
3.Moisture content

Sample QA Interview Question: Which type of tablets are exempted from Disintegration testing?
A. Chewable Tablets

Sample QA Interview Question: Which capsule is bigger in size – size ‘0’ or size ‘1’?
A. ‘0’ size

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended temperature for checking DT of a dispersible tablet?
A. 25 ±10C (IP) & 15 – 250C (BP)

Sample QA Interview Question: What is mesh aperture of DT apparatus ?
A. 1.8 -2.2mm (#10)

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the pass/fail criteria for disintegration test?

A. If one or two tablets/capsules fails to disintegrate completely, repeat the test on another 12 additional dosage units. The requirement is meet if not fewer than 16 out of 18 tablets/capsules tested are disintegrated completely.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended storage conditions for empty hard gelatin capsules?
A. 15 – 250C & 35 -55% RH

Sample QA Interview Question: Which method is employed for checking “Uniformity of dosage unit”?
A.
A.)Content uniformity
B.) Weight Variation
Weight variation is applicable for following dosage forms;Hard gelatin capsules,uncoated or film coated tablets,containing 25mg or more of a drug substance comprising 25% or more by weight of dosage unit.

Sample QA Interview Question: What is the recommended upward and downward movement frequency of a basket-rack assembly in a DT apparatus?
A. 28 – 32 cycles per minute.

Sample QA Interview Question: When performing the ‘uniformity of weight’ of the dosage unit, how many tablet/capsule can deviate the established limit?
A. Not more than two of the individual weights can deviates from the average weight by more than the percentage given in the pharmacopeia,and none can deviates more than twice that percentage.
Weight Variation limits for Tablets

IP/BP
Limit
USP
80 mg or less
10%
130mg or less
More than 80mg or Less than 250mg
7.5%
130mg to 324mg
250mg or more
5%
More than 324mg

Weight Variation limits for Capsules
IP
Limit
Less than 300mg
10%
300mg or More
7.5%

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B.PHARMACY & M. PHARMACY PROJECTS: TOPICS FOR PROJECT WORK OF Pharmacognosy STUDENTS

July 26, 2020July 22, 2018 by Renee

Pharmacognosy B.PHARMACY & M. PHARMACY PROJECTS TOPICS

Effect of Natural Product Clove Bud Oil on Pathogenic Pseudomonas aeruginosa Virulence and Host Response

Phytochemical And Anti-Inflammatory Studies On The Hexane Extract Of The Stem Bark Of Steganotaenia Araliacea Hoschts (Apiaceae)

Phytochemical And Inhibition Studies Of Garcinia Kola Heckel (Guttiferae) Seed Extracts On Some Key Enzymes Involved With Diabetes

Phytochemical And Biological Studies On The Seeds Of Jatropha Curcas Linn. (Euphorbiaceae) –

Phytochemical And Anti Bacterial Studies On The Stem Bark Of Lannea Barteri. (Oliv.) Engl. (Anacardiaceae)

Pharmacognostic And Pro-Fertility Evaluations Of Dracaena Arborea (Willd) Linn. (Dracaenaceae) –

Pharmacognostic And Antimicrobial Studies On The Stem-Bark Of Ficus Kamerunensis Warb. (Moraceae)

Pharmacognostic And Antibacterial Studies Of The Leaf Extracts Of Swartzia Madagascariensis Desv (Fabaceae)

Pharmacognosy M. PHARMACY PROJECT TOPICS

Pharmacognostic And Antibacterial Studies Of Acacia Sieberiana Var Woodii (Fabaceae) Stem Bark –

Antimicrobial Property Of The Hexane Extract From The Pods Of Acacia Nilotica(L.) Del.

Phytochemical And Antimalarial Studies Of The Leaves Of Uvaria Chamae P.Beauv. (Annonaceae) –

Development And Validation Of Spectrophotometric Methods For The Determination Of Risperidone In Pure And Tablet Dosage Forms

Spectrophotometric Determination And Stability Studies Of Artemether In Artemether-Lumefantrine Suspensions Marketed In our Country, Nigeria

Phytochemical Studies And Effect Of Methanol Leaf Extract Of Leptadenia Hastata (Pers.) Decne (Asclepiadaceae) On Acetic Acid Induced Writhes In Mice And Venom Of Echis Ocellatus –

Phytochemical And Antimicrobial Studies On The Stem-Bark Of Commiphora Mollis (Oliv. ) Engl. (Burseracaea)

Phytochemical And Antimicrobial Studies Of Spermacoce Verticillata (Rubiaceae)

Comparative Evaluation Of The Ascorbic Acid Content Of Mineral Ascorbate And Ascorbic Acid Tablets Marketed In our Country

Pharmacognosy B.PHARMACY PROJECT TOPICS

Extraction, Formulation and Pharmacological evaluation of an Anti Microbial Cream Alexeyena Varghese

Pregnancy complications and role of life style modifications in a woman with Poly Cystic Ovary Syndrome (Pcos) Remya Reghu

Development and Validation of quantitative methods for the estimation of a drug in a dosage form Aneesh T. P.

Design, Synthesis and biological evaluation of Indole-3-Carbinol Sathianarayanan S.

Phytochemical, Pharmacological analysis and formulative study of aqueous extracts of dried galls of Quercus Infectoria Deepa T. Vasudevan

Study for assessment of knowledge , compliance and behavior of diabetes patients Meenu Vijayan

Preparation and evaluation of extended Release tablets Vidya Viswanad

Development and evaluationof Gastro- Retentive Floating Tablet(GRFT) of Rantidine Hydrochloride Swati Gupta

Role of Pharmacists in communication gap between Physician and Patient Leena Thomas

Study of dental problems in diabetic patients and their therapeutic management Naveen Kumar Panicker

Spasmolytic effect of (-) carvone on Isolated Vascular and Non-Vascular superfused smooth muscle preparations Mohamed Shabi

Human RBC Membrane stabilization study using Anti – inflammatory drug by In-vitro method Jipnomon Joseph

Evaluation of Antimicrobial Activity of Aqueous Leaf Extracts of Chrysophyllum cainito R. Aravind

Study on complication of Gestational Diabetes and its management in a tertiary care teaching hospital Roshni P. R.

Comparative study of different species of Tulasi for larvicidal activity Rahul R.

Formulation, evaluation and In-Vitro activity of Gel loaded with Quinex Moringa Litha Thomas

Anti oxidant Activity of chromene compounds and their microwave synthesis

B.PHARMACY & M. PHARMACY PROJECTS: TOPICS FOR PROJECT WORK OF Pharmaceutical Chemistry STUDENTS

July 26, 2020July 19, 2018 by Renee

Here are B.PHARMACY & M. PHARMACY PROJECTS: TOPICS FOR PROJECT WORK OF Pharmaceutical Chemistry STUDENTS. Medicinal Chemistry is a vast and pious branch in Pharmaceutical sciences. Many researchers and professors are into huge research. Drug Discovery is the trending research in Pharmaceutical chemistry branch of Medicinal Chemistry. Drug Design, synthesis and binding studies of different products along with traditional synthesis of products is current research era. Trying different and Innovative ways to drug discovery through receptors peptides Enzymes Harmon’s is one good thought for selecting some project in your B.PHARMACY & M. PHARMACY PROJECTS.

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Projects for M Pharmacy B Pharmacy

Design, synthesis and binding studies of water-soluble fluoride receptors

Developing an enzymatic toolbox to make complex modified peptides

Discovery of novel pharmaceuticals from marine and desert microorganisms

Synthesis and study of simplified vancomycin analogues as novel antibiotics

Organic crystals with large channels and nanopores

Innovative ways to disinfect surfaces using catalysis

Discovery of novel cancer immunotherapeutic agents

First-Principles Based Mechanochemistry of Pharmaceutical Active Ingredients

Molecular mechanism of action and inhibition of ATP synthase using biomolecular simulations

Carbon nanotubes in the boron neutron capture therapy of cancer

In silico modelling of protein dynamics in heart disease

Targeting the CXCR4-CB2 G-protein coupled receptor complex as a treatment for breast cancer

Shape Variant Nanoparticles for Pathogen Sensing

Magnetic hyperthemia for cancer treatment: synthesis, biofunctionalisation of nanoparticles for thermo-chemotherapy

Total Synthesis of the Dineolignan Ophiocerol and Derivatives

Synthesis of bioactive natural products and associated analogues

Chiral sulfoxide auxiliaries for the asymmetric synthesis of benzannulated spiroketals

Synthesis of unusual dispiro metabolites

Synthesis of danshenspiroketallactones and cryptoacetalides

Synthesis of Danshenspiroketallactone and Cryptoacetalide for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disorders

Vaccine design for lectin targets

Organocatalytic assymetric synthesis of 6,5-benzannulated spiroketals

Synthetic and Computational Studies on Members of the Pyranonaphthoquinone Family of Anitbiotics

Design and synthesis of rat selective toxicants

Investigating the efficacy of novel antimicrobial mixes on microorganisms, surfaces and cells lines; an integrated study

Natural products as prophylaxis and treatment for gonococcal eye infections

Novel assays for screening drug – lipid membrane interactions

Organic/physical/computational chemistry – Improved methods for modelling reactivity and physical properties

Design and Synthesis of a Prospective Drug Candidate Against Diabetes

Synthesis of Mukanadin B and Analogues as Possible Neuroprotective Agents

B.PHARMACY PROJECTS TOPICS

Anti Inflammatory Activity of Chalcones
Design, Synthesis & Biological Evaluation of Antiprostrate Cancer Agents
Studies on the constituents isolated from the Shizoines of Nervilia Aragoana GAUD
Studies on effect of Structural modifications on Antimicrobial Chitoran
In silico design,Synthesis and Invitrostudies of some novel 4H-Chromene Derivatives as Anticancer Agents
Structural model of the Alpha-pPhosphoglucomutase and De Novo design of Inhibitors for the treatment of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

Aza-lignan project in Medicinal Chemistry

Derivatives of Anticancer Agents

M. PHARMACY PROJECTS TOPICS – Pharmaceutical Chemistry

Synthesis of Biologically Active Lignan Natural Products via an Acyl-Claisen Rearrangement and an Unusual 1,4-diaryl Rearrangement

Studies towards the asymmetric synthesis of 1,4-benzodioxane neolignans

Development of bioactive 3C protease inhibitors as therapeutics to treat the common cold

Novel Selective Ligands of the CB1/D2 Receptor Heterodimer

Method Development for Characterization of Novel Copper Chelators in Patients with Diabetes

Synthetic investigation of neurologically active therapeutic agents

Synthesis of cyclic peptides isolated from a psychrophile

Total Synthesis of Aspergillus Spiroketal and its analogues

Asymmetric gold-catalysed synthesis of the paecilospirone spiroacetal

Total synthesis of lasionectrin and related analogues as novel anti-malaria agents

Synthesis of marine derived natural products Aigialospirol and its analogues

Total synthesis of terreinol, a spiroketal natural product, and investigation into enantioselective oxidative spiroketalisation

Studies towards onchidal’s acetycholine esterase inhibitory activity

The synthesis and investigation of marine natural products as potential anti-fouling agents

Bioactive marine natural product

The synthesis of natural product containing polymers for use in the prevention of biofilms

Marine Natural Products in Drug Discovery

Studies Towards the Design, Synthesis and Analysis of Bioactive Peptides

Studies towards the identification and synthesis of proteins expressed in intact and degenerate bovine cartilage

Peptide conjugation to build tumour selectivity into potential chemotherapeutic agents

Medicinal Chemistry Projects or Pharma Chemistry Projects for Masters / B Pharmacy

In Medicinal chemistry Projects B pharmacy and M Pharmacy students can take up wide variety of research topics which deals with Synthesis, Characterization and Docking Studies of some products, or Green Synthesis and Characterization of products, or In Silco Molecular Modeling or Cellular Redox State Modifications or High Throughput Kinetic Assay for Screening Potential Inhibitors. You can also try Method Development for Characterization of Novel products. Just you can make a list of your interested research topics for your B pharm and M Pharm projects and give them to your Guide. He or she will mentor you according to the current trend, necessity and resources availability.

Below are few examples of projects for pharmacy students who are interested in Medicinal Chemistry. These are the current trending and ongoing project list from different places and institutes.

Synthesis of Mukanadin B and Analogues as Possible Neuroprotective Agents
Synthesizing novel self assembled monolayer conductive polymers for improving biocompatible and norotrophic devices
Synthesis of Biologically Active Lignan Natural Products via an Acyl-Claisen Rearrangement and an Unusual 1,4-diaryl Rearrangement
Studies towards the asymmetric synthesis of 1,4-benzodioxane neolignans
Total Synthesis of the Dineolignan Ophiocerol and Derivatives
Synthesis of bioactive natural products and associated analogues
Vaccine design for lectin targets
Design and synthesis of rat selective toxicants
Development of bioactive 3C protease inhibitors as therapeutics to treat the common cold
Novel Selective Ligands of the CB1/D2 Receptor Heterodimer
Method Development for Characterization of Novel Copper Chelators in Patients with Diabetes
Synthetic investigation of neurologically active therapeutic agents
Synthesis of cyclic peptides isolated from a psychrophile\
Total Synthesis of Aspergillus Spiroketal and its analogues
Asymmetric gold-catalysed synthesis of the paecilospirone spiroacetal \
Total synthesis of lasionectrin and related analogues as novel anti-malaria agents
Synthesis of marine derived natural products Aigialospirol and its analogues
Total synthesis of terreinol, a spiroketal natural product, and investigation into
enantioselective oxidative spiroketalisation
Studies towards onchidal’s acetycholine esterase inhibitory activit
Design and synthesis of rat selective toxicants
Development of bioactive 3C protease inhibitors as therapeutics to treat the common cold
Novel Selective Ligands of the CB1/D2 Receptor Heterodimer
Method Development for Characterization of Novel Copper Chelators in Patients with Diabetes
Synthetic investigation of neurologically active therapeutic agents
Synthesis of cyclic peptides isolated from a psychrophile
Total Synthesis of Aspergillus Spiroketal and its analogues
Asymmetric gold-catalysed synthesis of the paecilospirone spiroacetal
Total synthesis of lasionectrin and related analogues as novel anti-malaria agents
Synthesis of marine derived natural products Aigialospirol and its analogues
Total synthesis of terreinol, a spiroketal natural product, and investigation into enantioselective oxidative spiroketalisation
Studies towards onchidal’s acetycholine esterase inhibitory activity.

Skeletal Muscle Relaxants Drugs Classification Uses Pharmacology PPT + PDF Mechanism of Action

July 26, 2020July 16, 2018 by Renee

Skeletal muscle relaxant mechanism of Action 1

Skeletal Muscle Relaxants Drugs

Skeletal Muscle Relaxants

The main clinical use of skeletal muscle relaxant is it acts an adjuvant in surgical anesthesia to obtain relaxation of skeletal muscles à this minimizes the risk of respiratory & cardiovascular depression
These drugs block the post-synaptic actions of ACh at motor end plate
On the basis of their site & mechanism of action…these are classified as

Peripherally acting muscle relaxants[These act peripherally at neuromuscular junction]
a) Non-Depolarizing Blockers (Competitive Blockers)

Basis:These drugs prevent the access of ACh to NM receptor of motor end plate à prevent its depolarization

Long Acting: d-Tubocurarine (d-TC), Metocurine, Doxacurium, pancuronium, pipecuronium, gallamine
Intermediate acting: Atracurium, Cisatracurium, Vecuronium, Rcuronium

d-Tubocurarine: – Not clinical used do to its histaminic effects. • Succinylcholine: – SCh is the most commonly used muscle relaxant for passing tracheal tube. It induces rapid, complete and predictable paralysis with spontaneous recovery in ~5 min. – Occasionally SCh is used by continuous i.v. infusion for producing controlled muscle relaxation of longer duration. – It should be avoided in younger children unless absolutely necessary, because risk of hyperkalaemia and cardiac arrhythmia is higher

Pancuronium: – It is a synthetic steroidal compound, ~5 times more potent and longer acting than d-TC. – Because of longer duration of action, needing reversal, its use is now restricted to prolonged operations, especially neurosurgery. • Pipecuronium: – Muscle relaxant with a slow onset and long duration of action; steroidal in nature; recommended for prolonged surgeries. Nondepolarizing blockers – Individual compounds

Vecuronium: – It is a most commonly used muscle relaxant for routine surgery and in intensive care units.. • Atracurium: – Four times less potent than pancuronium and shorter acting. • Rocuronium: – Muscle relaxant with a rapid onset and intermediate duration of action which can be used as alternative to SCh for tracheal intubation without the disadvantages of depolarizing block and cardiovascular changes. Nondepolarizing blockers – Individual compounds

iii. Short Acting: Mivacurine, Rapacuronium

b) Depolarizing Blockers (persistent depolarizers)

Basis:They produce an excessive depolarization which persists for longer duration at NMJ à because they are resistant to hydrolysis by true AChE present in synaptic cleft
Succinyl Choline

Centrally Acting Muscle Relaxants

Basis:These drugs reduce skeletal muscle tone à by selective action in the cerebrospinal axis without altering consciousness
Carisoprodol, Chlorzoxazone, Diazepam, Clonazepam, Baclofen, Tizanidine

III. Directly Acting Muscle Relaxants

Basis:These directly interfere with the contractile mechanisms of voluntary muscle
Dantrolene

Misc Group

Quinine, Botulinum toxins A & B

Comparison of d-Tubocurarine & Succinylcholine

Parameters	d-Tubocurarine	Succinylcholine
1.Mechanism	Competitive blockade at NM receptors	Persistent depolarization of NM receptors followed by their desensitization
2.Potency	++ (Moderate)	+ (less)
3.Onset	4-5 min	1 min
4.Duration	30 – 50 min with no muscle sore	5 – 6 min followed by muscle sore
5.Type of Relaxation	Progressive flaccid paralysis	Initial fasciculations followed by flaccid paralysis
6.Effect of Neostigmine	Reversal i.e antagonism	Potentiation on effect
7.NM blocking drugs	Potentiation on effect	No effect
8.Hypothermia	Decreases effect	Increased effect
9.Histamine release	++ (Moderate)	Negligible
10. BP	Hypotension	No effect
11. Cardiac Muscarinic receptors	No effect	Stimulates. Bradycardia in low doses, tachycardia in large doses
12. Respiratory effects	Bronchospasm	Nil
13. GIT Effects	Constipation	Nausea, Vomitting
14. Serum K+ levels	No change	Hyperkalaemia
15. Intraocular pressure	No change	Raised
16. Pharmacogenetic variation in metabolism	Nil (it is excreted through kidney)	Metabolized by pseudocholinesterase (exhibit prolonged apnoea)
17. Other	Nil	Malignanat hyperthermia

Mechanism of Action of Skeletal Muscle Relaxants Drugs:

Baclofen

It is orally active GABA-mimetic drug àwhich acts as a GABA agonist at GABA_B receptors
The GABA_Breceptors are G-protein coupled receptors à which hyperpolarize neurons by increasing K+ conductance & reduce Ca⁺² conductance
Its actions àresults from an action at spinal level where it inhibits both monosynaptic & polysynaptic reflexes
Activation of GABAB recptors in the brain àresults in hyperpolarisation in the cord & brain à which interfere with the release of excitatory neurotransmitters
It also reduces pain associated with spastic conditions ßas it inhibits the release of substance-P in the spinal cord

Baclofen Therapeutic Uses

To relieve painful spasticity in multiple sclerosis
It is also used to relieve spasticity from spinal injuries but it is not very useful in cerebral palsy
It can also serve as an important substitute to treat trigeminal neuralgia & tardive dyskinesia
It imrves he quality f life of patients suffering with severe spasticity & pain

Baclofen Side Effects

Sedation, drowsiness, muscle weakness, ataxia
Sudden withdrawal may precipitate anxiety, tachycardia & Hallucinations
It is teratogenic & risk in pregnancy

Dantrolene

It is a phenytoin analogue àbut its site for antispastic action lies ouside the CNS
It acts directly at the contractile mechanisms of voluntary muscle by reducing depolarization induced Ca+2 release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
The muscle fibers still respond to nerve stimulus àthe contractile responses are reduced but not absolutely abolished by dantrolene à the net result is muscle weakness rather than paralysis
It also facilitates GABA which results in the depression of brain stem reticular functions & efferent motor neuron activity àit produces sedation but no selective action on polysynaptic reflexes

Dantrolene Therapeutic Uses

It is used to treat spasticity resulting from upper motor neuron lesions such as spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis & cerebral palsy
It is the drug of choice for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia
It is also used in the treatment of neurolept malignant syndrome
Orally it is poorly absorbed but absorption is consistent
Plasma half-life is 9-12 hrs
A/Es– generalized muscle weakness, sedation, diarrhea, hepatitis after prolonged use

References •

Tripathi KD. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Ed, New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publisher (P) Ltd, 2013.

GPAT Exam Notes Books Model Papers Previous Solved Papers Study Material PDF

July 26, 2020July 13, 2018 by Renee

GPAT Exam Notes, Books, Model Papers, Solved Papers -Previous Q&A PDF

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DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Question & Answers – DI Exam Practice Paper

July 26, 2020July 10, 2018 by Renee

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Question & Answers – DI Exam Practice Paper is here for you to check out how well is your preparation going on. This is the smart way to learn.

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Questions

1. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease

17. The Latin term for ointment is
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem

18. The Latin term for “When required” is
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim

19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline

20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is

1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation

21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos

22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium

23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension

24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse

25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin

26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia

27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil

28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ?
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen

29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent

30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis

42. The word posology is derived from Greek word “posos” which means
1. “How much” 2. Quantity
3. Amount 4. How long
You are looking for the Drug Inspector Exam Question Paper, i am giving here:

Of the following, who is elected 5.
unopposed in the recent election to
Rajya Sabha
(1) Mayawati
(2) Vilasa Rao Deshmukh
– (3) Rajiv Shukla
( 4) All the above

1. Senna is
1. Irritant laxative 2. Osmotic laxative
3. Bulk laxative 4. Emollient laxative

2. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare

6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ?
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium

DRUG INSPECTOR Practice Paper 2018

8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate

9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called

1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte

10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella

11. P wave of ECG is the result of

1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in

1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock

13. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea

14. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ?
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property

15. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ?
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine